📋 MOCK TEST – SET 36
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) — Advanced Level
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click option to check answer
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. Under NEP 2020, ‘Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN)’ must be achieved by every child by the end of: NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) is NEP 2020’s top priority. The NIPUN Bharat Mission (National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy) was launched in July 2021 with the goal of achieving FLN for every child by end of Grade 3 (by 2026–27). Covers basic reading, writing, and arithmetic skills. Implemented through ECCE, Balvatikas, and early primary school reforms.
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy (FLN) is NEP 2020’s top priority. The NIPUN Bharat Mission (National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy) was launched in July 2021 with the goal of achieving FLN for every child by end of Grade 3 (by 2026–27). Covers basic reading, writing, and arithmetic skills. Implemented through ECCE, Balvatikas, and early primary school reforms.
Q.2. The ‘5+3+3+4’ curricular structure under NEP 2020 corresponds to which age groups? NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
NEP 2020 replaces the 10+2 structure with 5+3+3+4: (1) Foundational Stage (3–8 yrs: pre-primary + Class 1–2), (2) Preparatory Stage (8–11 yrs: Class 3–5), (3) Middle Stage (11–14 yrs: Class 6–8), (4) Secondary Stage (14–18 yrs: Class 9–12). Aligns schooling with child’s cognitive development stages. Foundational stage emphasises play-based, activity-based learning.
NEP 2020 replaces the 10+2 structure with 5+3+3+4: (1) Foundational Stage (3–8 yrs: pre-primary + Class 1–2), (2) Preparatory Stage (8–11 yrs: Class 3–5), (3) Middle Stage (11–14 yrs: Class 6–8), (4) Secondary Stage (14–18 yrs: Class 9–12). Aligns schooling with child’s cognitive development stages. Foundational stage emphasises play-based, activity-based learning.
Q.3. ‘Jallianwala Bagh Massacre’ (April 13, 1919) occurred in which city? Indian History
Answer: (2)
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919) — Amritsar, Punjab. General Dyer ordered troops to fire on an unarmed crowd (protesting Rowlatt Act) at Jallianwala Bagh. Casualties: 379 killed officially (estimates 1,000+), 1,200+ wounded. Exits were blocked. Hunter Committee investigated. Udham Singh later killed Michael O’Dwyer (Punjab Lt. Governor) in London (1940). Bhagat Singh witnessed the massacre as a child.
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919) — Amritsar, Punjab. General Dyer ordered troops to fire on an unarmed crowd (protesting Rowlatt Act) at Jallianwala Bagh. Casualties: 379 killed officially (estimates 1,000+), 1,200+ wounded. Exits were blocked. Hunter Committee investigated. Udham Singh later killed Michael O’Dwyer (Punjab Lt. Governor) in London (1940). Bhagat Singh witnessed the massacre as a child.
Q.4. The ‘Indian National Congress’ was founded in 1885 by: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Indian National Congress founded on 28 December 1885 by A.O. Hume (a retired British ICS officer) in Bombay. First session: 72 delegates; first President: Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee. Initially moderate — demanded representative institutions and Indianisation of civil services. Dadabhai Naoroji = “Grand Old Man of India”; Surendranath Banerjee = “Rashtraguru”; Tilak = “Father of Indian Unrest.”
Indian National Congress founded on 28 December 1885 by A.O. Hume (a retired British ICS officer) in Bombay. First session: 72 delegates; first President: Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee. Initially moderate — demanded representative institutions and Indianisation of civil services. Dadabhai Naoroji = “Grand Old Man of India”; Surendranath Banerjee = “Rashtraguru”; Tilak = “Father of Indian Unrest.”
Q.5. ‘Darjeeling’ is famous for its tea. The specific type of Darjeeling tea with its unique ‘muscatel flavour’ is produced during which flush? West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Darjeeling tea has four flushes. The prized muscatel flavour (grape-like, musky taste) is associated with the second flush (May–June) — caused by the bite of a leafhopper insect (Jacobiasca formosana) triggering a chemical defence in the tea leaves. The first flush is lighter and more floral. Darjeeling tea has GI (Geographical Indication) tag (India’s first GI, 2004).
Darjeeling tea has four flushes. The prized muscatel flavour (grape-like, musky taste) is associated with the second flush (May–June) — caused by the bite of a leafhopper insect (Jacobiasca formosana) triggering a chemical defence in the tea leaves. The first flush is lighter and more floral. Darjeeling tea has GI (Geographical Indication) tag (India’s first GI, 2004).
Q.6. The ‘President of India’ can be impeached for violation of the Constitution. The impeachment process is described under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Article 61 — Impeachment of President. Process: Charges initiated by either House. 14-day notice + 1/4 members’ signature required. Resolution passed by 2/3 majority of total membership of initiating House → sent to other House for investigation → if other House also passes by 2/3 majority → President removed. Only President can be impeached in India (not VP by this procedure). No President has ever been impeached.
Article 61 — Impeachment of President. Process: Charges initiated by either House. 14-day notice + 1/4 members’ signature required. Resolution passed by 2/3 majority of total membership of initiating House → sent to other House for investigation → if other House also passes by 2/3 majority → President removed. Only President can be impeached in India (not VP by this procedure). No President has ever been impeached.
Q.7. ‘Haldia Port’ (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) — the major port near Kolkata — is located in: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Haldia Port (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port): located in Purba Medinipur (East Midnapore) district, WB — at the confluence of rivers Hooghly and Haldi (~56 km SW of Kolkata). India’s major port for bulk cargo, petroleum, chemicals. Part of Kolkata Port Trust (now Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port Trust). Handles crude oil, LPG, fertilisers, food grains. Connected by rail and road to hinterland.
Haldia Port (Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port): located in Purba Medinipur (East Midnapore) district, WB — at the confluence of rivers Hooghly and Haldi (~56 km SW of Kolkata). India’s major port for bulk cargo, petroleum, chemicals. Part of Kolkata Port Trust (now Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port Trust). Handles crude oil, LPG, fertilisers, food grains. Connected by rail and road to hinterland.
Q.8. ‘Photosynthesis equation’ (simplified) is: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. The process occurs in which organelle? Science
Answer: (2)
Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplast. Within the chloroplast: light reactions in the thylakoid membranes (grana), Calvin Cycle in the stroma. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll (green pigment) that absorbs light. Mitochondria = cellular respiration. Ribosomes = protein synthesis. Nucleus = DNA/RNA.
Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplast. Within the chloroplast: light reactions in the thylakoid membranes (grana), Calvin Cycle in the stroma. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll (green pigment) that absorbs light. Mitochondria = cellular respiration. Ribosomes = protein synthesis. Nucleus = DNA/RNA.
Q.9. ‘Cabinet Mission Plan’ (1946) proposed: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Cabinet Mission Plan (May 1946): Proposed a three-tier federal structure — (1) Union of India (defence, foreign affairs, communications), (2) Groups of Provinces (A: Hindu-majority; B: Muslim-majority NW; C: Muslim-majority NE), (3) Individual Provinces. Rejected the partition of India. Congress accepted the plan but rejected grouping provisions. Muslim League initially accepted, then rejected. Led to Direct Action Day (16 Aug 1946).
Cabinet Mission Plan (May 1946): Proposed a three-tier federal structure — (1) Union of India (defence, foreign affairs, communications), (2) Groups of Provinces (A: Hindu-majority; B: Muslim-majority NW; C: Muslim-majority NE), (3) Individual Provinces. Rejected the partition of India. Congress accepted the plan but rejected grouping provisions. Muslim League initially accepted, then rejected. Led to Direct Action Day (16 Aug 1946).
Q.10. ‘Chandrayaan-3’ successfully landed on the Moon’s south pole on: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
Chandrayaan-3: Launched 14 July 2023. Vikram lander soft-landed near Moon’s south pole on 23 August 2023 — India became the first country to land near the lunar south pole. Pragyan rover deployed. 23 August is now celebrated as National Space Day in India. Lander named Vikram (after Vikram Sarabhai); Rover = Pragyan. ISRO’s third lunar mission.
Chandrayaan-3: Launched 14 July 2023. Vikram lander soft-landed near Moon’s south pole on 23 August 2023 — India became the first country to land near the lunar south pole. Pragyan rover deployed. 23 August is now celebrated as National Space Day in India. Lander named Vikram (after Vikram Sarabhai); Rover = Pragyan. ISRO’s third lunar mission.
Q.11. The concept of ‘Judicial Review’ in India is drawn from: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Judicial Review — borrowed from the USA. It is the power of courts (primarily Supreme Court) to examine laws and executive actions for constitutional validity and strike them down if violative. Established in USA by Marbury v. Madison (1803). In India: Articles 13, 32, 226 embody judicial review. However, India’s judicial review is less extensive than USA’s (Parliament can amend Constitution with procedure).
Judicial Review — borrowed from the USA. It is the power of courts (primarily Supreme Court) to examine laws and executive actions for constitutional validity and strike them down if violative. Established in USA by Marbury v. Madison (1803). In India: Articles 13, 32, 226 embody judicial review. However, India’s judicial review is less extensive than USA’s (Parliament can amend Constitution with procedure).
Q.12. The ‘Murshidabad’ district of West Bengal was once the capital of Bengal Nawabs. The last independent Nawab of Bengal was: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Siraj ud-Daulah — last independent Nawab of Bengal. Defeated by British at Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757) — Robert Clive defeated him with the treachery of Mir Jafar. After Plassey, the Nawabs became British puppets. Mir Jafar was installed as Nawab by the British. Murshidabad remains famous for its Hazarduari Palace, silk (Murshidabad silk), and Katra Mosque (Murshid Quli Khan’s tomb).
Siraj ud-Daulah — last independent Nawab of Bengal. Defeated by British at Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757) — Robert Clive defeated him with the treachery of Mir Jafar. After Plassey, the Nawabs became British puppets. Mir Jafar was installed as Nawab by the British. Murshidabad remains famous for its Hazarduari Palace, silk (Murshidabad silk), and Katra Mosque (Murshid Quli Khan’s tomb).
Q.13. ‘National Digital Health Mission (NDHM)’ / ‘Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)’ creates a unique: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
ABDM (Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission): Launched nationwide 27 September 2021. Creates ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) — a 14-digit unique health ID for every citizen. Stores: personal health records (PHR), doctor prescriptions, test reports, discharge summaries digitally. Enables patients to share records with any doctor. Also: Health Facility Registry (HFR) and Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR). Piloted in 6 UTs from 2020.
ABDM (Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission): Launched nationwide 27 September 2021. Creates ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) — a 14-digit unique health ID for every citizen. Stores: personal health records (PHR), doctor prescriptions, test reports, discharge summaries digitally. Enables patients to share records with any doctor. Also: Health Facility Registry (HFR) and Healthcare Professionals Registry (HPR). Piloted in 6 UTs from 2020.
Q.14. ‘Emergency Provisions’ in the Indian Constitution are contained under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Emergency Provisions — Part XVIII (Articles 352–360). Three types: (1) National Emergency (Art. 352) — war/external aggression/armed rebellion; (2) President’s Rule/State Emergency (Art. 356) — constitutional failure in state; (3) Financial Emergency (Art. 360) — financial stability threat. National Emergency proclaimed 3 times: 1962 (China War), 1971 (Pakistan War), 1975–77 (internal disturbance — Indira Gandhi).
Emergency Provisions — Part XVIII (Articles 352–360). Three types: (1) National Emergency (Art. 352) — war/external aggression/armed rebellion; (2) President’s Rule/State Emergency (Art. 356) — constitutional failure in state; (3) Financial Emergency (Art. 360) — financial stability threat. National Emergency proclaimed 3 times: 1962 (China War), 1971 (Pakistan War), 1975–77 (internal disturbance — Indira Gandhi).
Q.15. The ‘Farakka Barrage’ on the River Ganga was built primarily to: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Farakka Barrage: built across the Ganga in Murshidabad district (WB), inaugurated 1975. Purpose: divert water from Ganga into the Hooghly (Bhagirathi) river to increase its flow, flush silt deposits, and preserve navigability of Kolkata Port. Has been a long-standing dispute with Bangladesh (Bangladesh loses water downstream). Ganga Waters Treaty signed with Bangladesh in 1996.
Farakka Barrage: built across the Ganga in Murshidabad district (WB), inaugurated 1975. Purpose: divert water from Ganga into the Hooghly (Bhagirathi) river to increase its flow, flush silt deposits, and preserve navigability of Kolkata Port. Has been a long-standing dispute with Bangladesh (Bangladesh loses water downstream). Ganga Waters Treaty signed with Bangladesh in 1996.
Q.16. Under NEP 2020, ‘Vocational Education’ is to be integrated from: NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
NEP 2020 mandates vocational education from Class 6. Students get exposure to local vocations: carpentry, pottery, electrical work, metal work, gardening, etc. — via bag-less days and 10-day internships with local craftspeople and artists (called “vocational exposure”). Goal: at least 50% of students to have vocational skills by 2025. Aim: end stigma against vocational education.
NEP 2020 mandates vocational education from Class 6. Students get exposure to local vocations: carpentry, pottery, electrical work, metal work, gardening, etc. — via bag-less days and 10-day internships with local craftspeople and artists (called “vocational exposure”). Goal: at least 50% of students to have vocational skills by 2025. Aim: end stigma against vocational education.
Q.17. ‘Penicillin’ — the first antibiotic — was discovered by: Science
Answer: (2)
Penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928 — accidentally noticed that the mould Penicillium notatum killed bacteria in a petri dish. Fleming, Howard Florey and Ernst Boris Chain won the Nobel Prize in Physiology/Medicine (1945). First antibiotic to be widely used. Louis Pasteur = germ theory of disease; Edward Jenner = smallpox vaccine; Robert Koch = identified TB and cholera bacteria.
Penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928 — accidentally noticed that the mould Penicillium notatum killed bacteria in a petri dish. Fleming, Howard Florey and Ernst Boris Chain won the Nobel Prize in Physiology/Medicine (1945). First antibiotic to be widely used. Louis Pasteur = germ theory of disease; Edward Jenner = smallpox vaccine; Robert Koch = identified TB and cholera bacteria.
Q.18. ‘Universal Adult Franchise’ in India means the right to vote is given to every citizen who: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Universal Adult Franchise (Article 326): Every citizen of India above 18 years (reduced from 21 by 61st Amendment, 1989) has the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, sex, property, or literacy. Disqualifications: non-citizen, unsound mind, corrupt practice conviction, imprisonment. India’s first general election (1951–52) was based on universal adult franchise — a bold democratic experiment given literacy of ~16% then.
Universal Adult Franchise (Article 326): Every citizen of India above 18 years (reduced from 21 by 61st Amendment, 1989) has the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, sex, property, or literacy. Disqualifications: non-citizen, unsound mind, corrupt practice conviction, imprisonment. India’s first general election (1951–52) was based on universal adult franchise — a bold democratic experiment given literacy of ~16% then.
Q.19. ‘Biswa Bangla’ brand — promoting authentic West Bengal handicrafts, textiles, and food products — was launched by: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Biswa Bangla brand: launched by the West Bengal Government (under CM Mamata Banerjee). Markets authentic WB products: Baluchari sarees, Kantha embroidery, Dhokra craft, Bishnupur terracotta, Darjeeling tea, Hilsa products, Mishti doi, Sandesh, etc. Biswa Bangla Gate at Kolkata (near New Town) is a landmark. Biswa Bangla stores in India and abroad. Competes with brands like Mother Dairy, Amul.
Biswa Bangla brand: launched by the West Bengal Government (under CM Mamata Banerjee). Markets authentic WB products: Baluchari sarees, Kantha embroidery, Dhokra craft, Bishnupur terracotta, Darjeeling tea, Hilsa products, Mishti doi, Sandesh, etc. Biswa Bangla Gate at Kolkata (near New Town) is a landmark. Biswa Bangla stores in India and abroad. Competes with brands like Mother Dairy, Amul.
Q.20. ‘Project Tiger’ was launched in India in: Current Affairs / Environment
Answer: (2)
Project Tiger: launched on 1 April 1973 by PM Indira Gandhi at Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand). Initially 9 tiger reserves; now 55 reserves (2024) covering ~78,000 km². First tiger census: 1972 (counted only 1,827 tigers). Latest census (2022): 3,167 tigers — India has ~75% of world’s wild tigers. NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority) oversees it. West Bengal: Sundarbans Tiger Reserve.
Project Tiger: launched on 1 April 1973 by PM Indira Gandhi at Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand). Initially 9 tiger reserves; now 55 reserves (2024) covering ~78,000 km². First tiger census: 1972 (counted only 1,827 tigers). Latest census (2022): 3,167 tigers — India has ~75% of world’s wild tigers. NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority) oversees it. West Bengal: Sundarbans Tiger Reserve.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘NEFARIOUS’:
Answer: (2)
Nefarious = (typically of an action or activity) wicked, criminal, villainous. Synonyms: Wicked, Villainous, Heinous, Iniquitous, Odious, Sinister. Antonym: Virtuous, Righteous, Honourable. “The nefarious activities of the gang shocked the city.” From Latin: nefas = wrongdoing.
Nefarious = (typically of an action or activity) wicked, criminal, villainous. Synonyms: Wicked, Villainous, Heinous, Iniquitous, Odious, Sinister. Antonym: Virtuous, Righteous, Honourable. “The nefarious activities of the gang shocked the city.” From Latin: nefas = wrongdoing.
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘ACRIMONIOUS’:
Answer: (2)
Acrimonious = angry and bitter, especially in speech or manner. Antonyms: Amicable, Cordial, Pleasant, Genial, Peaceful. “Their divorce proceedings were acrimonious.” Antonym usage: “The two nations held amicable talks.” Synonyms: Caustic, Bitter, Rancorous, Vitriolic, Acerbic.
Acrimonious = angry and bitter, especially in speech or manner. Antonyms: Amicable, Cordial, Pleasant, Genial, Peaceful. “Their divorce proceedings were acrimonious.” Antonym usage: “The two nations held amicable talks.” Synonyms: Caustic, Bitter, Rancorous, Vitriolic, Acerbic.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2)
Millennium = M-I-L-L-E-N-N-I-U-M. Double ‘l’ AND double ‘n’. 1,000 years. Common errors: single ‘l’ (milenium) or single ‘n’ (millenium). Both double letters are needed. Similarly: millennium goals (UN SDGs replaced Millennium Development Goals). Related: millennial (person born 1981–1996).
Millennium = M-I-L-L-E-N-N-I-U-M. Double ‘l’ AND double ‘n’. 1,000 years. Common errors: single ‘l’ (milenium) or single ‘n’ (millenium). Both double letters are needed. Similarly: millennium goals (UN SDGs replaced Millennium Development Goals). Related: millennial (person born 1981–1996).
Q.24. Fill in the blank (Reported Speech — Modal Verb): He said, “I can swim across the river.” → He said that he ________ swim across the river.
Answer: (2) could
Modal verb backshift in indirect speech: can → could, will → would, may → might, shall → should, must → must/had to. “He said that he could swim across the river.” Note: In direct speech, “can” shows present ability. In indirect speech (past reporting verb “said”), “can” changes to “could” (past form of can).
Modal verb backshift in indirect speech: can → could, will → would, may → might, shall → should, must → must/had to. “He said that he could swim across the river.” Note: In direct speech, “can” shows present ability. In indirect speech (past reporting verb “said”), “can” changes to “could” (past form of can).
Q.25. Fill in the blank (Preposition): The scientist is known ________ her research on climate change.
Answer: (2) for
“Known for” = the correct preposition to indicate the reason for fame or recognition. “He is known for his kindness.” Contrast: “Known to someone” = familiar to. “Known as” = referred to by a name. “Known by” is typically not used in this context. Fixed phrase: be known for + noun/gerund.
“Known for” = the correct preposition to indicate the reason for fame or recognition. “He is known for his kindness.” Contrast: “Known to someone” = familiar to. “Known as” = referred to by a name. “Known by” is typically not used in this context. Fixed phrase: be known for + noun/gerund.
Q.26. Idiom: “Despite repeated failures, she never threw in the towel.” The underlined word completes the idiom meaning:
Answer: (2)
“Throw in the towel” = to give up, admit defeat, or surrender. Origin: boxing — a trainer throws a towel into the ring to signal the fighter is withdrawing from the match. “He threw in the towel after three unsuccessful attempts.” She “never threw in the towel” = she never gave up. Synonyms: concede defeat, give in, surrender, quit.
“Throw in the towel” = to give up, admit defeat, or surrender. Origin: boxing — a trainer throws a towel into the ring to signal the fighter is withdrawing from the match. “He threw in the towel after three unsuccessful attempts.” She “never threw in the towel” = she never gave up. Synonyms: concede defeat, give in, surrender, quit.
Q.27. Spot the error: “He is one of the (A) / best students (B) / who has ever (C) / studied in this school. (D)”
Answer: (1) C — “have”
“One of the best students who have ever studied…” — The relative pronoun “who” refers to “the best students” (plural), not “one.” Therefore, the verb must be plural: “who have ever studied.” Common error: making the verb agree with “one” (singular). Rule: “One of those/the + plural noun + who/that → plural verb.”
“One of the best students who have ever studied…” — The relative pronoun “who” refers to “the best students” (plural), not “one.” Therefore, the verb must be plural: “who have ever studied.” Common error: making the verb agree with “one” (singular). Rule: “One of those/the + plural noun + who/that → plural verb.”
Q.28. Identify the figure of speech in: “The news spread like wildfire.”
Answer: (2) Simile
Simile = a comparison using “like” or “as.” “The news spread like wildfire” — uses “like” to compare the speed of news spreading to wildfire. Metaphor would say “The news was wildfire” (no like/as). Personification = giving human qualities to non-human things. Hyperbole = extreme exaggeration. This is a classic example of simile.
Simile = a comparison using “like” or “as.” “The news spread like wildfire” — uses “like” to compare the speed of news spreading to wildfire. Metaphor would say “The news was wildfire” (no like/as). Personification = giving human qualities to non-human things. Hyperbole = extreme exaggeration. This is a classic example of simile.
Q.29. One word substitution: A person who walks in sleep.
Answer: (2)
Somnambulist = a person who walks during sleep (sleepwalker). From Latin: somnus (sleep) + ambulare (to walk). The condition = somnambulism. Insomniac = person who cannot sleep. Narcissist = excessively self-admiring person. Introvert = reserved/inward-looking person. Related: Somniloquist = person who talks in sleep.
Somnambulist = a person who walks during sleep (sleepwalker). From Latin: somnus (sleep) + ambulare (to walk). The condition = somnambulism. Insomniac = person who cannot sleep. Narcissist = excessively self-admiring person. Introvert = reserved/inward-looking person. Related: Somniloquist = person who talks in sleep.
Q.30. Spot the error: “The committee (A) / has submitted (B) / their report (C) / to the chairman. (D)”
Answer: (1) C — “its”
“The committee has submitted…” — “committee” treated as a single unit (singular verb “has”). Therefore, the pronoun must also be singular: “…submitted its report.” Using “their” is inconsistent — “has” (singular) and “their” (plural) conflict. Rule: when a collective noun takes a singular verb (acting as one unit), use singular pronoun (it/its).
“The committee has submitted…” — “committee” treated as a single unit (singular verb “has”). Therefore, the pronoun must also be singular: “…submitted its report.” Using “their” is inconsistent — “has” (singular) and “their” (plural) conflict. Rule: when a collective noun takes a singular verb (acting as one unit), use singular pronoun (it/its).
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Six people A, B, C, D, E, F sit in a straight line facing North. C sits 3rd from the left. A is immediate right of C. D is 2nd to the left of A. B is at one extreme end. F is between D and B. What is E’s position?
Answer: (2) Extreme left
C=3rd from left (pos 3). A=immediate right of C → A=pos 4. D=2nd left of A → D=pos 2. B at extreme end. If B=pos 6: F is between D(pos 2) and B(pos 6) — pos 3 and 4 occupied by C and A, so F=pos 5. Remaining: E=pos 1 = Extreme left. Final arrangement: E(1) — D(2) — C(3) — A(4) — F(5) — B(6). B=extreme right ✓, E=extreme left ✓.
C=3rd from left (pos 3). A=immediate right of C → A=pos 4. D=2nd left of A → D=pos 2. B at extreme end. If B=pos 6: F is between D(pos 2) and B(pos 6) — pos 3 and 4 occupied by C and A, so F=pos 5. Remaining: E=pos 1 = Extreme left. Final arrangement: E(1) — D(2) — C(3) — A(4) — F(5) — B(6). B=extreme right ✓, E=extreme left ✓.
Q.32. Number Series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, ___
Answer: (2) 56
Pattern: n(n+1). 1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30, 6×7=42, 7×8=56. Differences: +4,+6,+8,+10,+12,+14 (increasing by 2 each time). Next = 42+14=56.
Pattern: n(n+1). 1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30, 6×7=42, 7×8=56. Differences: +4,+6,+8,+10,+12,+14 (increasing by 2 each time). Next = 42+14=56.
Q.33. Analogy: Pisciculture : Fish :: Apiculture : ?
Answer: (2) Bees
Pisciculture = breeding/rearing of fish. Apiculture = breeding/rearing of bees (honey production). Others: Sericulture = silkworms; Poultry = birds; Floriculture = flowers; Horticulture = fruits/vegetables; Aquaculture = aquatic organisms; Viticulture = grapes.
Pisciculture = breeding/rearing of fish. Apiculture = breeding/rearing of bees (honey production). Others: Sericulture = silkworms; Poultry = birds; Floriculture = flowers; Horticulture = fruits/vegetables; Aquaculture = aquatic organisms; Viticulture = grapes.
Q.34. Statements: No pen is a pencil. All pencils are erasers. Some erasers are sharpeners.
Conclusions: I. No pen is an eraser. II. Some erasers are pencils. III. Some sharpeners may be pens.
Conclusions: I. No pen is an eraser. II. Some erasers are pencils. III. Some sharpeners may be pens.
Answer: (2)
I: No pen is pencil + All pencils are erasers → Pens and erasers may or may not overlap — not definite. I does not follow. II: All pencils are erasers → by conversion: Some erasers are pencils ✓. III: “Some sharpeners may be pens” — no statement rules this out. Possibility conclusion ✓. Answer: II and III follow.
I: No pen is pencil + All pencils are erasers → Pens and erasers may or may not overlap — not definite. I does not follow. II: All pencils are erasers → by conversion: Some erasers are pencils ✓. III: “Some sharpeners may be pens” — no statement rules this out. Possibility conclusion ✓. Answer: II and III follow.
Q.35. A man is 16th from the front and 14th from the back of a queue. How many people are in the queue?
Answer: (2) 29
Total = (rank from front) + (rank from back) − 1 = 16 + 14 − 1 = 29.
Total = (rank from front) + (rank from back) − 1 = 16 + 14 − 1 = 29.
Q.36. Puzzle: P is heavier than Q but lighter than R. S is heavier than R. T is lighter than Q. Who is the heaviest?
Answer: (2) S
Order: T < Q < P < R < S. So S is the heaviest.
Order: T < Q < P < R < S. So S is the heaviest.
Q.37. Matrix Puzzle: Find the missing number.
[ 4, 9, 25 ]
[ 16, 36, 64 ]
[ 100, ?, 196 ]
[ 4, 9, 25 ]
[ 16, 36, 64 ]
[ 100, ?, 196 ]
Answer: (2) 144
Row 1: 2²=4, 3²=9, 5²=25. Row 2: 4²=16, 6²=36, 8²=64. Row 3: 10²=100, 12²=144, 14²=196. Column 2 bases: 3, 6, 12 (×2 each). Answer: 144.
Row 1: 2²=4, 3²=9, 5²=25. Row 2: 4²=16, 6²=36, 8²=64. Row 3: 10²=100, 12²=144, 14²=196. Column 2 bases: 3, 6, 12 (×2 each). Answer: 144.
Q.38. Alphabet Sequence: What comes next? ZA, YB, XC, WD, ___
Answer: (2) VE
First letter: Z,Y,X,W,V (−1 each). Second letter: A,B,C,D,E (+1 each). Next = VE.
First letter: Z,Y,X,W,V (−1 each). Second letter: A,B,C,D,E (+1 each). Next = VE.
Q.39. Coding: If STRONG = VWURQJ (each letter +3), what is the code for HONEST?
Answer: (2) KRQHVW
Each letter +3: H→K, O→R, N→Q, E→H, S→V, T→W. HONEST = KRQHVW. Verify: H(8)+3=K(11) ✓; O(15)+3=R(18) ✓; N(14)+3=Q(17) ✓; E(5)+3=H(8) ✓; S(19)+3=V(22) ✓; T(20)+3=W(23) ✓.
Each letter +3: H→K, O→R, N→Q, E→H, S→V, T→W. HONEST = KRQHVW. Verify: H(8)+3=K(11) ✓; O(15)+3=R(18) ✓; N(14)+3=Q(17) ✓; E(5)+3=H(8) ✓; S(19)+3=V(22) ✓; T(20)+3=W(23) ✓.
Q.40. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) is called the ‘Mini Constitution.’
Reason (R): It made the most extensive changes to the Constitution, adding the words ‘Socialist,’ ‘Secular,’ and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble, among many other changes.
Assertion (A): The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) is called the ‘Mini Constitution.’
Reason (R): It made the most extensive changes to the Constitution, adding the words ‘Socialist,’ ‘Secular,’ and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble, among many other changes.
Answer: (1)
A ✓: The 42nd Amendment (1976) is called the “Mini Constitution” for its sweeping changes. R ✓: It added “Socialist,” “Secular,” “Integrity” to the Preamble; added Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Art. 51A); gave DPSP supremacy over FRs; added 3 new DPSPs. R correctly explains why it is called “Mini Constitution.”
A ✓: The 42nd Amendment (1976) is called the “Mini Constitution” for its sweeping changes. R ✓: It added “Socialist,” “Secular,” “Integrity” to the Preamble; added Fundamental Duties (Part IVA, Art. 51A); gave DPSP supremacy over FRs; added 3 new DPSPs. R correctly explains why it is called “Mini Constitution.”
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Find the value of: √(6.25) + √(0.0625) + √(625)
Answer: (1) 27.75
√6.25 = 2.5; √0.0625 = 0.25; √625 = 25. Sum = 2.5 + 0.25 + 25 = 27.75.
√6.25 = 2.5; √0.0625 = 0.25; √625 = 25. Sum = 2.5 + 0.25 + 25 = 27.75.
Q.42. If 2x + 3y = 12 and xy = 6, find 4x² + 9y².
Answer: (2) 72
(2x+3y)² = 4x²+12xy+9y² = 144. 4x²+9y² = 144 − 12xy = 144 − 12×6 = 144 − 72 = 72.
(2x+3y)² = 4x²+12xy+9y² = 144. 4x²+9y² = 144 − 12xy = 144 − 12×6 = 144 − 72 = 72.
Q.43. A and B started a business with ₹3,500 and ₹5,600 respectively. After 8 months, C joined with ₹4,200. At the end of 2 years, total profit is ₹47,600. Find B’s share.
Answer: (2) ₹22,400
Capital × Time: A = 3500×24 = 84,000; B = 5600×24 = 134,400; C = 4200×16 = 67,200. Divide by GCD 16,800 → Ratio A:B:C = 5:8:4. Total parts = 17. B’s share = (8/17) × 47,600 = ₹22,400.
Capital × Time: A = 3500×24 = 84,000; B = 5600×24 = 134,400; C = 4200×16 = 67,200. Divide by GCD 16,800 → Ratio A:B:C = 5:8:4. Total parts = 17. B’s share = (8/17) × 47,600 = ₹22,400.
Q.44. Walking at 4/5 of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 15 minutes late. What is his usual time to reach the office?
Answer: (2) 60 minutes
At 4/5 speed, time = 5/4 of usual time T. Extra time = T/4 = 15 min. T = 60 minutes.
At 4/5 speed, time = 5/4 of usual time T. Extra time = T/4 = 15 min. T = 60 minutes.
Q.45. If the selling price of 12 articles equals the cost price of 16 articles, find the profit percentage.
Answer: (2) 33.33%
SP of 12 = CP of 16. SP per article = 16/12 = 4/3 of CP. Profit% = (4/3 − 1) × 100 = (1/3) × 100 = 33.33%.
SP of 12 = CP of 16. SP per article = 16/12 = 4/3 of CP. Profit% = (4/3 − 1) × 100 = (1/3) × 100 = 33.33%.
Q.46. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 28. Find the largest number.
Answer: (2) 32
Middle number (average) = 28. Numbers: 24, 26, 28, 30, 32. Largest = 32.
Middle number (average) = 28. Numbers: 24, 26, 28, 30, 32. Largest = 32.
Q.47. A cistern can be filled by two pipes A and B in 4 hours and 6 hours respectively. But a leak at the bottom empties it in 8 hours. In how many hours will the cistern be full if all work simultaneously?
Answer: (2) 24/7 hours
Net rate = 1/4 + 1/6 − 1/8 = (6+4−3)/24 = 7/24 per hour. Time = 24/7 ≈ 3.43 hours.
Net rate = 1/4 + 1/6 − 1/8 = (6+4−3)/24 = 7/24 per hour. Time = 24/7 ≈ 3.43 hours.
Q.48. Find the CI on ₹8,000 at 5% p.a. compounded annually for 3 years.
Answer: (2) ₹1,261
A = 8000 × (1.05)³ = 8000 × 1.157625 = 9,261. CI = 9,261 − 8,000 = ₹1,261.
A = 8000 × (1.05)³ = 8000 × 1.157625 = 9,261. CI = 9,261 − 8,000 = ₹1,261.
Q.49. Three numbers are in ratio 2:3:4. Their LCM is 48. Find the smallest number.
Answer: (2) 8
Numbers = 2k, 3k, 4k. LCM = 12k = 48 → k = 4. Smallest = 2k = 8. Check: LCM(8,12,16) = 48 ✓.
Numbers = 2k, 3k, 4k. LCM = 12k = 48 → k = 4. Smallest = 2k = 8. Check: LCM(8,12,16) = 48 ✓.
Q.50. A cylindrical tank has radius 7 m and height 10 m. Find its capacity in litres. (1 m³ = 1000 litres, π = 22/7)
Answer: (2) 1,540,000 L
Volume = πr²h = (22/7) × 49 × 10 = 22 × 7 × 10 = 1,540 m³. Capacity = 1,540 × 1,000 = 1,540,000 litres.
Volume = πr²h = (22/7) × 49 × 10 = 22 × 7 × 10 = 1,540 m³. Capacity = 1,540 × 1,000 = 1,540,000 litres.
Q.51. A can complete a job in 12 days; B in 18 days. They work together for 3 days, then B leaves. How many more days will A alone take?
Answer: (3) 7 days
A+B rate = 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36 per day. In 3 days together: 3 × 5/36 = 15/36 = 5/12 done. Remaining = 1 − 5/12 = 7/12. A alone: (7/12) ÷ (1/12) = 7 days.
A+B rate = 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36 per day. In 3 days together: 3 × 5/36 = 15/36 = 5/12 done. Remaining = 1 − 5/12 = 7/12. A alone: (7/12) ÷ (1/12) = 7 days.
Q.52. The present ages of two brothers are in ratio 3:4. After 6 years their ages will be in ratio 4:5. Find the present age of the younger brother.
Answer: (2) 18 years
Present ages: 3x and 4x. After 6 years: (3x+6)/(4x+6) = 4/5. 15x+30 = 16x+24. x = 6. Younger = 3×6 = 18 years.
Present ages: 3x and 4x. After 6 years: (3x+6)/(4x+6) = 4/5. 15x+30 = 16x+24. x = 6. Younger = 3×6 = 18 years.
Q.53. In a survey of 100 people: 60 read newspaper A, 40 read newspaper B, 20 read both. How many read neither?
Answer: (2) 20
A∪B = 60 + 40 − 20 = 80. Neither = 100 − 80 = 20.
A∪B = 60 + 40 − 20 = 80. Neither = 100 − 80 = 20.
Q.54. If tan θ = 3/4, find the value of (sin θ + cos θ).
Answer: (2) 7/5
tan θ = 3/4 → opposite=3, adjacent=4, hypotenuse=5. sin θ = 3/5, cos θ = 4/5. sin θ + cos θ = 3/5 + 4/5 = 7/5.
tan θ = 3/4 → opposite=3, adjacent=4, hypotenuse=5. sin θ = 3/5, cos θ = 4/5. sin θ + cos θ = 3/5 + 4/5 = 7/5.
Q.55. The area of an equilateral triangle is 36√3 cm². Find its perimeter.
Answer: (2) 36 cm
Area = (√3/4)a² = 36√3 → a² = 144 → a = 12 cm. Perimeter = 3 × 12 = 36 cm.
Area = (√3/4)a² = 36√3 → a² = 144 → a = 12 cm. Perimeter = 3 × 12 = 36 cm.
Q.56. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water has milk:water = 3:1. How much water should be added to make the ratio 2:1?
Answer: (2) 5 litres
Milk = 30 L, Water = 10 L. Let water added = x. 30/(10+x) = 2/1 → 30 = 20+2x → x = 5 litres.
Milk = 30 L, Water = 10 L. Let water added = x. 30/(10+x) = 2/1 → 30 = 20+2x → x = 5 litres.
Q.57. A trader marks his goods 25% above cost and allows a discount of 15%. Find his profit or loss %.
Answer: (2) 6.25% profit
SP = CP × 1.25 × 0.85 = CP × 1.0625. Profit% = 6.25%. If CP=100: MP=125, after 15% discount SP=106.25. Profit=6.25%.
SP = CP × 1.25 × 0.85 = CP × 1.0625. Profit% = 6.25%. If CP=100: MP=125, after 15% discount SP=106.25. Profit=6.25%.
Q.58. The sum of all natural numbers from 1 to 50 is:
Answer: (2) 1,275
Sum = n(n+1)/2 = 50×51/2 = 1,275.
Sum = n(n+1)/2 = 50×51/2 = 1,275.
Q.59. A and B together can do a work in 8 days. B alone takes 12 days. If B works for 6 days and then A joins, how many more days will they take to finish?
Answer: (3) 4 days
A+B = 1/8/day; B = 1/12/day; A = 1/8 − 1/12 = 1/24/day. B works 6 days: 6/12 = 1/2 done. Remaining = 1/2. A+B together: (1/2) ÷ (1/8) = 4 days.
A+B = 1/8/day; B = 1/12/day; A = 1/8 − 1/12 = 1/24/day. B works 6 days: 6/12 = 1/2 done. Remaining = 1/2. A+B together: (1/2) ÷ (1/8) = 4 days.
Q.60. A bank offers 10% p.a. simple interest. A person deposits ₹15,000. After how many years will the SI equal half the principal?
Answer: (2) 5 years
SI = P/2 = 7,500. SI = PRT/100 → 7,500 = 15,000×10×T/100 → 7,500 = 1,500T → T = 5 years.
SI = P/2 = 7,500. SI = PRT/100 → 7,500 = 15,000×10×T/100 → 7,500 = 1,500T → T = 5 years.