📋 MOCK TEST – SET 34
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) — Advanced Level
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click option to check answer
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. Under NEP 2020, ‘Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities (MERUs)’ are envisioned to be established on the model of: NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
MERUs (Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities): NEP 2020 envisions at least one MERU in or near each district. Modelled on world-class multidisciplinary universities (MIT, Stanford, Oxford) that combine sciences, humanities, arts, and professions. Aim: end the fragmented single-discipline college system. IITs and Central Universities to be converted to MERUs by 2040.
MERUs (Multidisciplinary Education and Research Universities): NEP 2020 envisions at least one MERU in or near each district. Modelled on world-class multidisciplinary universities (MIT, Stanford, Oxford) that combine sciences, humanities, arts, and professions. Aim: end the fragmented single-discipline college system. IITs and Central Universities to be converted to MERUs by 2040.
Q.2. According to NEP 2020, ‘Internationalisation of Education’ includes which of the following? NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
NEP 2020 Internationalisation provisions: (a) Top 100 foreign universities permitted to set up campuses in India. (b) Indian students can do dual degrees internationally via credit transfer through ABC. (c) Branch campuses of Indian institutions abroad. UGC (Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign HEIs in India) Regulations 2023 issued accordingly. NYU Abu Dhabi/London models cited.
NEP 2020 Internationalisation provisions: (a) Top 100 foreign universities permitted to set up campuses in India. (b) Indian students can do dual degrees internationally via credit transfer through ABC. (c) Branch campuses of Indian institutions abroad. UGC (Setting up and Operation of Campuses of Foreign HEIs in India) Regulations 2023 issued accordingly. NYU Abu Dhabi/London models cited.
Q.3. The ‘Non-Cooperation Movement’ (1920–22) was withdrawn by Gandhi due to: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Chauri Chaura incident (4 February 1922): A mob of protesters attacked and set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura, Gorakhpur (UP), killing 22 policemen. Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement immediately, calling it a “Himalayan blunder.” Gandhi was arrested in March 1922 and sentenced to 6 years. The incident shocked nationalist leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru.
Chauri Chaura incident (4 February 1922): A mob of protesters attacked and set fire to a police station in Chauri Chaura, Gorakhpur (UP), killing 22 policemen. Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement immediately, calling it a “Himalayan blunder.” Gandhi was arrested in March 1922 and sentenced to 6 years. The incident shocked nationalist leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru.
Q.4. The ‘Rowlatt Act’ (1919) was officially known as: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Rowlatt Act (1919) officially = Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act. Named after Justice Sidney Rowlatt whose committee recommended it. Allowed detention without trial for up to 2 years, trials without jury. Called “Black Act.” Led to nationwide protests, Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919). Gandhi called it the “Dharma Yuddh” and launched Satyagraha against it.
Rowlatt Act (1919) officially = Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act. Named after Justice Sidney Rowlatt whose committee recommended it. Allowed detention without trial for up to 2 years, trials without jury. Called “Black Act.” Led to nationwide protests, Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (April 13, 1919). Gandhi called it the “Dharma Yuddh” and launched Satyagraha against it.
Q.5. ‘Loktak Lake’ — the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India — is famous for: Current Affairs / Geography
Answer: (2)
Loktak Lake, Manipur — India’s largest freshwater lake in Northeast. Famous for Phumdis — unique floating islands of decomposed vegetation, soil and organic matter. Keibul Lamjao National Park (on Loktak, world’s only floating national park) is home to the endangered Sangai deer (Brow-antlered deer). Ramsar site (1990).
Loktak Lake, Manipur — India’s largest freshwater lake in Northeast. Famous for Phumdis — unique floating islands of decomposed vegetation, soil and organic matter. Keibul Lamjao National Park (on Loktak, world’s only floating national park) is home to the endangered Sangai deer (Brow-antlered deer). Ramsar site (1990).
Q.6. The ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution are contained in: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
DPSP — Part IV (Articles 36–51). Non-justiciable but fundamental to governance. Borrowed from Irish Constitution. Three categories: Socialistic (Art. 38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 43A, 47), Gandhian (Art. 40, 43, 43B, 46, 47, 48), Liberal-Intellectual (Art. 44, 45, 48A, 49, 50, 51). Cannot override Fundamental Rights (Article 37).
DPSP — Part IV (Articles 36–51). Non-justiciable but fundamental to governance. Borrowed from Irish Constitution. Three categories: Socialistic (Art. 38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 43A, 47), Gandhian (Art. 40, 43, 43B, 46, 47, 48), Liberal-Intellectual (Art. 44, 45, 48A, 49, 50, 51). Cannot override Fundamental Rights (Article 37).
Q.7. The famous ‘Bishnupur’ town of West Bengal is located in which district? West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Bishnupur — Bankura district, WB. Famous for: (1) Terracotta temples (Madan Mohan, Rasmancha, Jorbangla — built by Malla kings, 17th–18th century). (2) Bishnupur Gharana of classical music (Dhrupad). (3) Baluchari sarees (silk, with Ramayana/Mahabharata motifs — GI tagged). (4) Dashavatara playing cards. UNESCO tentative list for terracotta temples.
Bishnupur — Bankura district, WB. Famous for: (1) Terracotta temples (Madan Mohan, Rasmancha, Jorbangla — built by Malla kings, 17th–18th century). (2) Bishnupur Gharana of classical music (Dhrupad). (3) Baluchari sarees (silk, with Ramayana/Mahabharata motifs — GI tagged). (4) Dashavatara playing cards. UNESCO tentative list for terracotta temples.
Q.8. ‘Newton’s Second Law of Motion’ states that: Science
Answer: (2)
Newton’s 2nd Law: F = dp/dt = ma (rate of change of momentum). Applied force is proportional to and in the direction of acceleration. 1st Law = inertia (option 3). 3rd Law = action-reaction (option 1). Option 4 = Newton’s Law of Gravitation. 2nd Law gives the measure of force and is the most important for dynamics.
Newton’s 2nd Law: F = dp/dt = ma (rate of change of momentum). Applied force is proportional to and in the direction of acceleration. 1st Law = inertia (option 3). 3rd Law = action-reaction (option 1). Option 4 = Newton’s Law of Gravitation. 2nd Law gives the measure of force and is the most important for dynamics.
Q.9. The ‘Cripps Mission’ (1942) failed primarily because: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Cripps Mission (March 1942): Sir Stafford Cripps sent to India during WWII. Proposals: (a) Dominion Status after war, (b) Constituent Assembly to frame constitution, (c) Provinces could opt out of Indian Union. Congress rejected (Gandhi called it “post-dated cheque on a crashing bank”) — mainly due to no immediate independence and the opt-out clause. Muslim League rejected because it didn’t guarantee Pakistan. Mission failed.
Cripps Mission (March 1942): Sir Stafford Cripps sent to India during WWII. Proposals: (a) Dominion Status after war, (b) Constituent Assembly to frame constitution, (c) Provinces could opt out of Indian Union. Congress rejected (Gandhi called it “post-dated cheque on a crashing bank”) — mainly due to no immediate independence and the opt-out clause. Muslim League rejected because it didn’t guarantee Pakistan. Mission failed.
Q.10. ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)’ provides crop insurance with the farmer paying a maximum premium of: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
PMFBY (2016): Farmer pays max premium: 2% for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi, 5% for annual commercial/horticultural crops. Balance premium paid equally by Centre and State. Implemented by empanelled insurance companies. Covers: prevented sowing, standing crop loss, post-harvest losses, localised calamities. Voluntary from 2020 (earlier compulsory for loanee farmers).
PMFBY (2016): Farmer pays max premium: 2% for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi, 5% for annual commercial/horticultural crops. Balance premium paid equally by Centre and State. Implemented by empanelled insurance companies. Covers: prevented sowing, standing crop loss, post-harvest losses, localised calamities. Voluntary from 2020 (earlier compulsory for loanee farmers).
Q.11. ‘Article 21A’ of the Indian Constitution — Right to Education — was inserted by: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002): Inserted Article 21A — free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 as a Fundamental Right. Also amended Article 45 (DPSP — early childhood care for under-6) and Article 51A(k) (duty of parents to send children to school). Enabling legislation: Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009, enforced from 1 April 2010.
86th Constitutional Amendment Act (2002): Inserted Article 21A — free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 as a Fundamental Right. Also amended Article 45 (DPSP — early childhood care for under-6) and Article 51A(k) (duty of parents to send children to school). Enabling legislation: Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009, enforced from 1 April 2010.
Q.12. The ‘Kangsabati (Kasai) River’ in West Bengal originates from: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Kangsabati (Kasai) River originates from the Chhotonagpur Plateau near the Jharkhand–Puruliya border. Flows through Puruliya, Bankura, and Medinipur districts. The Mukutmanipur Dam (Bankura) is built across it — one of the largest earthen dams in India. Joins the Hooghly near Tamluk. Important for irrigation in WB’s Rarh region.
Kangsabati (Kasai) River originates from the Chhotonagpur Plateau near the Jharkhand–Puruliya border. Flows through Puruliya, Bankura, and Medinipur districts. The Mukutmanipur Dam (Bankura) is built across it — one of the largest earthen dams in India. Joins the Hooghly near Tamluk. Important for irrigation in WB’s Rarh region.
Q.13. ‘Operation Sindoor’ (May 2025) was India’s military response to: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
Operation Sindoor (May 7, 2025): India launched precision military strikes on 9 terrorist camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (PoK) in retaliation for the Pahalgam terrorist attack (April 22, 2025) that killed 26 tourists. Carried out by Indian Air Force and Army using missiles and drones. Named “Sindoor” symbolising the widows created by the Pahalgam attack. Pakistan responded with attempted drone and missile strikes, all neutralised by India’s air defence systems.
Operation Sindoor (May 7, 2025): India launched precision military strikes on 9 terrorist camps in Pakistan and Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (PoK) in retaliation for the Pahalgam terrorist attack (April 22, 2025) that killed 26 tourists. Carried out by Indian Air Force and Army using missiles and drones. Named “Sindoor” symbolising the widows created by the Pahalgam attack. Pakistan responded with attempted drone and missile strikes, all neutralised by India’s air defence systems.
Q.14. ‘Money Bill’ is defined under which Article of the Indian Constitution? Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Article 110 defines Money Bill. Contains 7 specific matters (taxation, appropriation, consolidated fund, etc.). Certified by Speaker. Introduced only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can return with recommendations within 14 days — Lok Sabha may accept or reject. President cannot return for reconsideration (unlike ordinary bills). Article 109 = special procedure for Money Bills.
Article 110 defines Money Bill. Contains 7 specific matters (taxation, appropriation, consolidated fund, etc.). Certified by Speaker. Introduced only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can return with recommendations within 14 days — Lok Sabha may accept or reject. President cannot return for reconsideration (unlike ordinary bills). Article 109 = special procedure for Money Bills.
Q.15. ‘Rabindra Sarobar’ (Dhakuria Lake) in Kolkata is associated with which of the following? West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Rabindra Sarobar (Dhakuria Lake): artificial lake in South Kolkata, named after Rabindranath Tagore. National importance for rowing and water sports; hosts National Rowing Championship. Kolkata Rowing Club (est. 1858) is based here. Declared a Ramsar Wetland. Surrounded by a large park, known as “green lung” of South Kolkata. Protected area under National Green Tribunal rulings.
Rabindra Sarobar (Dhakuria Lake): artificial lake in South Kolkata, named after Rabindranath Tagore. National importance for rowing and water sports; hosts National Rowing Championship. Kolkata Rowing Club (est. 1858) is based here. Declared a Ramsar Wetland. Surrounded by a large park, known as “green lung” of South Kolkata. Protected area under National Green Tribunal rulings.
Q.16. Under NEP 2020, the concept of ‘Credit-Based Curriculum Framework’ allows students to: NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
Credit-Based Curriculum Framework under NEP 2020: Students can choose courses across departments/institutions, accumulate credits, pause education and re-enter using Academic Bank of Credits (ABC). Flexible 4-year UG programme allows exit with: Certificate (1 year), Diploma (2 years), B.A./B.Sc. (3 years), B.A./B.Sc. with Research (4 years). ABC registered on NAD (National Academic Depository) platform.
Credit-Based Curriculum Framework under NEP 2020: Students can choose courses across departments/institutions, accumulate credits, pause education and re-enter using Academic Bank of Credits (ABC). Flexible 4-year UG programme allows exit with: Certificate (1 year), Diploma (2 years), B.A./B.Sc. (3 years), B.A./B.Sc. with Research (4 years). ABC registered on NAD (National Academic Depository) platform.
Q.17. ‘Photosynthesis’ in plants produces glucose and oxygen. The oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from: Science
Answer: (2)
The O₂ released in photosynthesis comes from the splitting of water molecules (photolysis) in the light-dependent reactions (in thylakoid membranes). 2H₂O → 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ + O₂. CO₂ provides the carbon for glucose formation in the Calvin Cycle (light-independent). Proved by isotope labelling (¹⁸O) by Ruben and Kamen (1941).
The O₂ released in photosynthesis comes from the splitting of water molecules (photolysis) in the light-dependent reactions (in thylakoid membranes). 2H₂O → 4H⁺ + 4e⁻ + O₂. CO₂ provides the carbon for glucose formation in the Calvin Cycle (light-independent). Proved by isotope labelling (¹⁸O) by Ruben and Kamen (1941).
Q.18. ‘The Right to Constitutional Remedies’ — called the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Constitution by Ambedkar — is under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Article 32 — Right to Constitutional Remedies: Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul of the Constitution.” Right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. SC can issue 5 writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto. Article 226 = High Court writ jurisdiction (wider scope). Article 32 cannot be suspended except during Emergency (Art. 359).
Article 32 — Right to Constitutional Remedies: Ambedkar called it the “heart and soul of the Constitution.” Right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. SC can issue 5 writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto. Article 226 = High Court writ jurisdiction (wider scope). Article 32 cannot be suspended except during Emergency (Art. 359).
Q.19. The ‘Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve’ is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is shared between: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Sundarbans spans India (West Bengal — South 24 Parganas) and Bangladesh. World’s largest mangrove forest. UNESCO World Heritage: India’s Sundarbans NP (1987). Ramsar site. Home to Royal Bengal Tiger, Irrawaddy dolphins, saltwater crocodile, Gangetic dolphin. The name “Sundarban” may derive from “Sundari” tree (Heritiera fomes) or “beautiful forest.” Total area ~10,000 km².
Sundarbans spans India (West Bengal — South 24 Parganas) and Bangladesh. World’s largest mangrove forest. UNESCO World Heritage: India’s Sundarbans NP (1987). Ramsar site. Home to Royal Bengal Tiger, Irrawaddy dolphins, saltwater crocodile, Gangetic dolphin. The name “Sundarban” may derive from “Sundari” tree (Heritiera fomes) or “beautiful forest.” Total area ~10,000 km².
Q.20. ‘Vikram-S’ — India’s first privately developed rocket — was launched in: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
Vikram-S: India’s first privately built rocket, developed by Skyroot Aerospace (Hyderabad). Launched on 18 November 2022 from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota. Named after Vikram Sarabhai. Sub-orbital flight. Carried 3 payloads. Mission name: Prarambh (beginning). Marked India’s entry into private space launch industry under IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre).
Vikram-S: India’s first privately built rocket, developed by Skyroot Aerospace (Hyderabad). Launched on 18 November 2022 from SDSC SHAR, Sriharikota. Named after Vikram Sarabhai. Sub-orbital flight. Carried 3 payloads. Mission name: Prarambh (beginning). Marked India’s entry into private space launch industry under IN-SPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre).
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘INIMICAL’:
Answer: (2)
Inimical = tending to obstruct or harm; hostile; unfriendly; adverse. Synonyms: Hostile, Antagonistic, Harmful, Adverse, Unfavourable. Antonym: Friendly, Amicable, Beneficial. “Conditions inimical to growth.” Do not confuse with “inimitable” (matchless/unique).
Inimical = tending to obstruct or harm; hostile; unfriendly; adverse. Synonyms: Hostile, Antagonistic, Harmful, Adverse, Unfavourable. Antonym: Friendly, Amicable, Beneficial. “Conditions inimical to growth.” Do not confuse with “inimitable” (matchless/unique).
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘PENURY’:
Answer: (2)
Penury = extreme poverty; destitution. Antonyms: Affluence, Wealth, Opulence, Prosperity, Abundance. Synonyms of Penury: Indigence, Want, Pauperism, Privation. “He was reduced to penury after the business failed.” Compare: Frugality = being careful with money (not same as poverty).
Penury = extreme poverty; destitution. Antonyms: Affluence, Wealth, Opulence, Prosperity, Abundance. Synonyms of Penury: Indigence, Want, Pauperism, Privation. “He was reduced to penury after the business failed.” Compare: Frugality = being careful with money (not same as poverty).
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2)
Liaison = a communication or cooperation link; a person who acts as a link. L-I-A-I-S-O-N. Key: ‘ai’ followed by ‘is’. Two vowel pairs: L-I-A-I-S-O-N. Common errors: liasion (extra ‘i’ in wrong place), liason (missing ‘i’), liasson (double ‘s’). French-origin word.
Liaison = a communication or cooperation link; a person who acts as a link. L-I-A-I-S-O-N. Key: ‘ai’ followed by ‘is’. Two vowel pairs: L-I-A-I-S-O-N. Common errors: liasion (extra ‘i’ in wrong place), liason (missing ‘i’), liasson (double ‘s’). French-origin word.
Q.24. Fill in the blank (Conditional Sentence — Unreal Past): If she ________ harder, she would have passed the exam.
Answer: (2) had studied
Type 3 Conditional (Unreal Past): refers to a hypothetical situation in the past. Structure: If + Past Perfect (had + V3), would have + V3. “If she had studied harder, she would have passed.” Shows that she did NOT study hard and did NOT pass. Type 1 (real): If she studies → she will pass. Type 2 (unreal present): If she studied → she would pass.
Type 3 Conditional (Unreal Past): refers to a hypothetical situation in the past. Structure: If + Past Perfect (had + V3), would have + V3. “If she had studied harder, she would have passed.” Shows that she did NOT study hard and did NOT pass. Type 1 (real): If she studies → she will pass. Type 2 (unreal present): If she studied → she would pass.
Q.25. Choose the sentence with CORRECT use of the article:
Answer: (2)
(2) ✓ “The sun” (unique) “the east” (unique direction). (1) ✗ Should be “the class” (specific). (3) ✗ “university” starts with /j/ sound (consonant) → “a university” not “an”. (4) ✗ Should be “an hour” (silent ‘h’ → vowel sound /aʊ/). Article rules: ‘a’ before consonant sounds, ‘an’ before vowel sounds — based on sound not spelling.
(2) ✓ “The sun” (unique) “the east” (unique direction). (1) ✗ Should be “the class” (specific). (3) ✗ “university” starts with /j/ sound (consonant) → “a university” not “an”. (4) ✗ Should be “an hour” (silent ‘h’ → vowel sound /aʊ/). Article rules: ‘a’ before consonant sounds, ‘an’ before vowel sounds — based on sound not spelling.
Q.26. Idiom: “The two ministers were at loggerheads over the new policy.” The underlined phrase means:
Answer: (2)
“At loggerheads” = in strong disagreement or conflict with someone. “The two parties are at loggerheads over the budget.” Origin: loggerhead = a type of iron tool (ball on a rod) once used as a weapon in disputes. Synonyms: at odds, in conflict, at variance. Antonym: in agreement, on the same page.
“At loggerheads” = in strong disagreement or conflict with someone. “The two parties are at loggerheads over the budget.” Origin: loggerhead = a type of iron tool (ball on a rod) once used as a weapon in disputes. Synonyms: at odds, in conflict, at variance. Antonym: in agreement, on the same page.
Q.27. Spot the error: “He spoke (A) / to the audience (B) / as if he knew (C) / everything about it. (D)”
Answer: (4) No error
After “as if” + past tense (real or less formal): “as if he knew” is acceptable in informal/standard usage. Formal subjunctive: “as if he knew” (past, treating as hypothetical) is correct. The sentence as given is grammatically correct. No error.
After “as if” + past tense (real or less formal): “as if he knew” is acceptable in informal/standard usage. Formal subjunctive: “as if he knew” (past, treating as hypothetical) is correct. The sentence as given is grammatically correct. No error.
Q.28. Identify the type of sentence: “Not only did she win the race, but she also broke the national record.”
Answer: (2)
This is a Compound sentence (two independent clauses joined by “but…also”). It also uses inversion after “Not only” at the start: “Not only did she win…” (auxiliary-subject inversion). “Not only…but also” = correlative conjunction. No dependent clause = not complex. Two main clauses = compound.
This is a Compound sentence (two independent clauses joined by “but…also”). It also uses inversion after “Not only” at the start: “Not only did she win…” (auxiliary-subject inversion). “Not only…but also” = correlative conjunction. No dependent clause = not complex. Two main clauses = compound.
Q.29. One word substitution: The practice of having more than one husband at the same time.
Answer: (2)
Polyandry = a woman having more than one husband simultaneously. Polygyny = a man having more than one wife. Polygamy = having multiple spouses (general term). Bigamy = being married to two people at once (illegal). Monogamy = one spouse.
Polyandry = a woman having more than one husband simultaneously. Polygyny = a man having more than one wife. Polygamy = having multiple spouses (general term). Bigamy = being married to two people at once (illegal). Monogamy = one spouse.
Q.30. Spot the error: “The jury (A) / have given (B) / their verdict (C) / unanimously. (D)”
Answer: (4) No error
“Jury” is a collective noun. When members act individually → plural verb (“have given their verdict”). In British English, collective nouns commonly take plural verbs. “The jury have given their verdict unanimously” is grammatically correct. No error.
“Jury” is a collective noun. When members act individually → plural verb (“have given their verdict”). In British English, collective nouns commonly take plural verbs. “The jury have given their verdict unanimously” is grammatically correct. No error.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Five boxes P, Q, R, S, T are stacked vertically. P is directly above R. Two boxes are between Q and T. S is at the bottom. Q is above T. No box is between P and Q. Arrange from top to bottom.
Answer: (2) Q–P–R–T–S
S is at bottom (pos 5). P is directly above R (P-R consecutive). No box between P and Q (Q-P consecutive). So order: Q-P-R (three consecutive). Q is above T, 2 boxes between Q and T. Q=1 → T=4. Arrangement: Q(1)–P(2)–R(3)–T(4)–S(5). Check: P directly above R ✓; no box between P&Q (Q=1,P=2) ✓; S at bottom ✓; 2 boxes between Q(1) and T(4): P,R = 2 boxes ✓; Q above T ✓.
S is at bottom (pos 5). P is directly above R (P-R consecutive). No box between P and Q (Q-P consecutive). So order: Q-P-R (three consecutive). Q is above T, 2 boxes between Q and T. Q=1 → T=4. Arrangement: Q(1)–P(2)–R(3)–T(4)–S(5). Check: P directly above R ✓; no box between P&Q (Q=1,P=2) ✓; S at bottom ✓; 2 boxes between Q(1) and T(4): P,R = 2 boxes ✓; Q above T ✓.
Q.32. Number Series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ___
Answer: (2) 191
Pattern: ×2+1. 5×2+1=11 ✓; 11×2+1=23 ✓; 23×2+1=47 ✓; 47×2+1=95 ✓; 95×2+1=191.
Pattern: ×2+1. 5×2+1=11 ✓; 11×2+1=23 ✓; 23×2+1=47 ✓; 47×2+1=95 ✓; 95×2+1=191.
Q.33. Analogy: Cartography : Maps :: Numismatics : ?
Answer: (2)
Cartography = science/art of making maps. Numismatics = study and collection of coins, currency, and medals. Other: Philately = stamps; Archaeology = antiquities; Seismology = earthquakes; Entomology = insects.
Cartography = science/art of making maps. Numismatics = study and collection of coins, currency, and medals. Other: Philately = stamps; Archaeology = antiquities; Seismology = earthquakes; Entomology = insects.
Q.34. Input-Output: A machine processes words as follows: Step 1 — reverse each word; Step 2 — replace each vowel with the next vowel (a→e, e→i, i→o, o→u, u→a). Apply to “HIDE”. What is final output?
Answer: (1) IDOH
Step 1 — Reverse HIDE: E-D-I-H. Step 2 — Replace vowels (consonants unchanged): E→I, D→D, I→O, H→H. Result: I-D-O-H = IDOH. Verify: vowel cycle a→e→i→o→u→a. E(5th)→I(next vowel) ✓; I→O ✓. Consonants D and H stay. Final = IDOH.
Step 1 — Reverse HIDE: E-D-I-H. Step 2 — Replace vowels (consonants unchanged): E→I, D→D, I→O, H→H. Result: I-D-O-H = IDOH. Verify: vowel cycle a→e→i→o→u→a. E(5th)→I(next vowel) ✓; I→O ✓. Consonants D and H stay. Final = IDOH.
Q.35. Complex Blood Relation: Q is the brother of R. R is the daughter of S. S is married to T. T is the son of U. U has only one grandchild. How is Q related to U?
Answer: (2) Grandson
T is son of U. S is married to T. R is daughter of S (and T). Q is brother of R → Q is also child of S and T. U’s son = T. T’s child = Q. So U’s grandson = Q. Since U has only one grandchild (given), Q is the only grandchild → Q is U’s grandson.
T is son of U. S is married to T. R is daughter of S (and T). Q is brother of R → Q is also child of S and T. U’s son = T. T’s child = Q. So U’s grandson = Q. Since U has only one grandchild (given), Q is the only grandchild → Q is U’s grandson.
Q.36. Direction: Starting from point X, Ramesh walks 5 km North, turns right and walks 3 km, turns right and walks 5 km, then turns left and walks 4 km. How far and in what direction is he from X?
Answer: (2) 7 km East
Start X(0,0). North 5km → (0,5). Turn right (East), 3km → (3,5). Turn right (South), 5km → (3,0). Turn left (East), 4km → (7,0). From X(0,0) to (7,0) = 7 km East.
Start X(0,0). North 5km → (0,5). Turn right (East), 3km → (3,5). Turn right (South), 5km → (3,0). Turn left (East), 4km → (7,0). From X(0,0) to (7,0) = 7 km East.
Q.37. Odd one out: Violin, Guitar, Sitar, Flute, Veena
Answer: (2) Flute
Violin, Guitar, Sitar, Veena are all string instruments (chordophones). Flute is a wind instrument (aerophone) — sound produced by blowing air. Hence Flute is the odd one out.
Violin, Guitar, Sitar, Veena are all string instruments (chordophones). Flute is a wind instrument (aerophone) — sound produced by blowing air. Hence Flute is the odd one out.
Q.38. Puzzle: In a family of 6, there are two married couples. D is the father of E. B is the daughter-in-law of A. C is the brother of D. F is the daughter of D. B is married to C. How is F related to B?
Answer: (2) Niece
C and D are brothers. B is married to C. F is D’s daughter → F is the niece of C → F is B’s niece (B is C’s wife; C is F’s uncle).
C and D are brothers. B is married to C. F is D’s daughter → F is the niece of C → F is B’s niece (B is C’s wife; C is F’s uncle).
Q.39. Number Puzzle: 6 × 8 = 100, 5 × 9 = 106, 7 × 7 = 98. Find 4 × 6 = ?
Answer: (2) 52
Pattern: a² + b². 6²+8²=36+64=100 ✓; 5²+9²=25+81=106 ✓; 7²+7²=49+49=98 ✓; 4²+6²=16+36=52 ✓.
Pattern: a² + b². 6²+8²=36+64=100 ✓; 5²+9²=25+81=106 ✓; 7²+7²=49+49=98 ✓; 4²+6²=16+36=52 ✓.
Q.40. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): India follows a federal system with a strong Centre.
Reason (R): The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship, a unified judiciary, and an all-India service.
Assertion (A): India follows a federal system with a strong Centre.
Reason (R): The Indian Constitution provides for a single citizenship, a unified judiciary, and an all-India service.
Answer: (1)
A ✓: India’s Constitution is federal with unitary bias (K.C. Wheare called it “quasi-federal”). Centre is strong. R ✓: Features like single citizenship, integrated judiciary (one Supreme Court), All-India Services (IAS/IPS controlled by Centre) — all demonstrate central dominance. R correctly explains why Centre is strong.
A ✓: India’s Constitution is federal with unitary bias (K.C. Wheare called it “quasi-federal”). Centre is strong. R ✓: Features like single citizenship, integrated judiciary (one Supreme Court), All-India Services (IAS/IPS controlled by Centre) — all demonstrate central dominance. R correctly explains why Centre is strong.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Find the value of: (0.81)^(1/2) × (0.729)^(1/3) ÷ (0.9)^(5/4) × (0.9)^(1/4)
Answer: (1) 0.9
Express all as powers of 0.9: 0.81=(0.9)², 0.729=(0.9)³. Powers: (0.9²)^(1/2)=0.9¹; (0.9³)^(1/3)=0.9¹; ÷(0.9)^(5/4)=×(0.9)^(-5/4); ×(0.9)^(1/4). Total power = 1+1−5/4+1/4 = 2+(−1) = 1. Result = (0.9)¹ = 0.9.
Express all as powers of 0.9: 0.81=(0.9)², 0.729=(0.9)³. Powers: (0.9²)^(1/2)=0.9¹; (0.9³)^(1/3)=0.9¹; ÷(0.9)^(5/4)=×(0.9)^(-5/4); ×(0.9)^(1/4). Total power = 1+1−5/4+1/4 = 2+(−1) = 1. Result = (0.9)¹ = 0.9.
Q.42. If p + q = 10 and pq = 21, find p³ + q³.
Answer: (2) 370
p³+q³=(p+q)³−3pq(p+q)=1000−3×21×10=1000−630=370.
p³+q³=(p+q)³−3pq(p+q)=1000−3×21×10=1000−630=370.
Q.43. In a business, A and B invest in ratio 5:3. At the end of 6 months, C joins with an amount equal to that of B. At the year end, profit is ₹57,000. Find C’s share.
Answer: (2) ₹9,000
Let A=5k, B=3k for 12 months; C=3k for 6 months. Time-weighted ratios: A=5k×12=60k; B=3k×12=36k; C=3k×6=18k. Ratio = 60:36:18 = 10:6:3. Total = 19 parts. C’s share = (3/19)×57000 = ₹9,000.
Let A=5k, B=3k for 12 months; C=3k for 6 months. Time-weighted ratios: A=5k×12=60k; B=3k×12=36k; C=3k×6=18k. Ratio = 60:36:18 = 10:6:3. Total = 19 parts. C’s share = (3/19)×57000 = ₹9,000.
Q.44. A man travels from A to B at 40 km/h and returns from B to A at 60 km/h. The total journey takes 5 hours. Find the distance AB.
Answer: (2) 120 km
Let distance = d. d/40+d/60=5. (3d+2d)/120=5. 5d=600. d=120 km.
Let distance = d. d/40+d/60=5. (3d+2d)/120=5. 5d=600. d=120 km.
Q.45. If A:B = 3:4, B:C = 5:6, C:D = 7:8, find A:D.
Answer: (1) 35:64
A/D = (A/B)×(B/C)×(C/D) = (3/4)×(5/6)×(7/8) = 105/192. GCD(105,192)=3. Simplified = 35:64.
A/D = (A/B)×(B/C)×(C/D) = (3/4)×(5/6)×(7/8) = 105/192. GCD(105,192)=3. Simplified = 35:64.
Q.46. The mean of 20 observations is 15. If each observation is multiplied by 2 and then 5 is subtracted, what is the new mean?
Answer: (2) 25
New mean = 2×old mean − 5 = 2×15−5 = 30−5 = 25.
New mean = 2×old mean − 5 = 2×15−5 = 30−5 = 25.
Q.47. A merchant buys goods worth ₹6,000 and uses a faulty weight that shows 1,000 g but actually weighs 800 g. What is his actual profit %?
Answer: (2) 25%
He gives 800g but charges for 1000g. CP of 800g = 0.8× cost. SP = 1× cost. Profit% = (1−0.8)/0.8 × 100 = 0.2/0.8 × 100 = 25%.
He gives 800g but charges for 1000g. CP of 800g = 0.8× cost. SP = 1× cost. Profit% = (1−0.8)/0.8 × 100 = 0.2/0.8 × 100 = 25%.
Q.48. Find CI on ₹25,000 at 12% p.a. compounded annually for 2 years.
Answer: (2) ₹6,360
A=25000×(1.12)²=25000×1.2544=31360. CI=31360−25000=₹6,360.
A=25000×(1.12)²=25000×1.2544=31360. CI=31360−25000=₹6,360.
Q.49. Two alloys contain gold and silver in ratios 3:2 and 5:4. They are melted in equal quantities. Find the ratio of gold to silver in the new alloy.
Answer: (2) 52:38
Take 45 units each (LCM of 5 and 9). Alloy 1 (45): gold=3/5×45=27, silver=18. Alloy 2 (45): gold=5/9×45=25, silver=20. Total gold=52, silver=38. Ratio=52:38 (=26:19).
Take 45 units each (LCM of 5 and 9). Alloy 1 (45): gold=3/5×45=27, silver=18. Alloy 2 (45): gold=5/9×45=25, silver=20. Total gold=52, silver=38. Ratio=52:38 (=26:19).
Q.50. A cone has base radius 7 cm and slant height 25 cm. Find its total surface area. (π=22/7)
Answer: (2) 704 cm²
TSA of cone = πr(l+r) = (22/7)×7×(25+7) = 22×32 = 704 cm².
TSA of cone = πr(l+r) = (22/7)×7×(25+7) = 22×32 = 704 cm².
Q.51. Pipe A fills a tank in 10 hours, pipe B in 15 hours, and pipe C empties it in 8 hours. If all three are opened together, in how many hours will the tank be full (starting empty)?
Answer: (2) 24 hours
Net rate = 1/10+1/15−1/8 = (12+8−15)/120 = 5/120 = 1/24. Time = 24 hours.
Net rate = 1/10+1/15−1/8 = (12+8−15)/120 = 5/120 = 1/24. Time = 24 hours.
Q.52. The sum of the ages of a father and his son is 56 years. After 4 years, the father’s age will be 3 times his son’s age. Find the son’s present age.
Answer: (3) 12 years
Son=x, Father=56−x. After 4 years: (56−x+4)=3(x+4) → 60−x=3x+12 → 48=4x → x=12. Son’s present age = 12 years.
Son=x, Father=56−x. After 4 years: (56−x+4)=3(x+4) → 60−x=3x+12 → 48=4x → x=12. Son’s present age = 12 years.
Q.53. In a class, 40 students play Chess, 50 play Carrom, and 60 play Ludo. 15 play both Chess and Carrom, 20 play both Carrom and Ludo, 10 play both Chess and Ludo, and 8 play all three games. Find the total number of students.
Answer: (2) 113
|C∪Ca∪L| = 40+50+60−15−20−10+8 = 150−45+8 = 113.
|C∪Ca∪L| = 40+50+60−15−20−10+8 = 150−45+8 = 113.
Q.54. If sin 30° = 1/2, find the value of 4sin³30° − 3sin 30°.
Answer: (2) −1
4sin³30°−3sin30° = 4(1/8)−3(1/2) = 1/2−3/2 = −1. (Also equals −sin(3×30°) = −sin90° = −1 ✓).
4sin³30°−3sin30° = 4(1/8)−3(1/2) = 1/2−3/2 = −1. (Also equals −sin(3×30°) = −sin90° = −1 ✓).
Q.55. A rhombus has diagonals 24 cm and 10 cm. Find its perimeter.
Answer: (2) 52 cm
Diagonals of a rhombus bisect at right angles. Half-diagonals: 12 cm and 5 cm. Side = √(12²+5²) = √(144+25) = √169 = 13 cm. Perimeter = 4×13 = 52 cm.
Diagonals of a rhombus bisect at right angles. Half-diagonals: 12 cm and 5 cm. Side = √(12²+5²) = √(144+25) = √169 = 13 cm. Perimeter = 4×13 = 52 cm.
Q.56. 15 men can complete a work in 16 days. After 6 days, 5 men leave. How many more days will the remaining men take to complete the rest of the work?
Answer: (2) 15 days
Total work = 15×16 = 240 units. Done in 6 days = 15×6 = 90 units. Remaining = 150 units. Men left = 10. Days = 150/10 = 15 days.
Total work = 15×16 = 240 units. Done in 6 days = 15×6 = 90 units. Remaining = 150 units. Men left = 10. Days = 150/10 = 15 days.
Q.57. A sells a watch to B at a profit of 10%, and B sells it to C at a profit of 5%. If C pays ₹2,310, what did A pay originally?
Answer: (2) ₹2,000
C pays = A’s CP×1.10×1.05 = A’s CP×1.155 = 2310. A’s CP = 2310/1.155 = ₹2,000.
C pays = A’s CP×1.10×1.05 = A’s CP×1.155 = 2310. A’s CP = 2310/1.155 = ₹2,000.
Q.58. How many 3-digit numbers are divisible by both 4 and 6?
Answer: (2) 75
LCM(4,6)=12. 3-digit numbers divisible by 12: from 108 to 996. Count = (996−108)/12+1 = 888/12+1 = 74+1 = 75.
LCM(4,6)=12. 3-digit numbers divisible by 12: from 108 to 996. Count = (996−108)/12+1 = 888/12+1 = 74+1 = 75.
Q.59. If the radius of a circle is increased by 20%, by what percentage does its area increase?
Answer: (2) 44%
New radius = 1.2r. New area = π(1.2r)² = 1.44πr². Increase = 44%. Formula: if radius increases by r%, area increases by (2r + r²/100)% = 2(20)+400/100 = 40+4 = 44%.
New radius = 1.2r. New area = π(1.2r)² = 1.44πr². Increase = 44%. Formula: if radius increases by r%, area increases by (2r + r²/100)% = 2(20)+400/100 = 40+4 = 44%.
Q.60. A and B together earn ₹1,440 per day. A and C together earn ₹1,680 per day. B and C together earn ₹1,200 per day. What does C earn per day?
Answer: (2) ₹720
A+B=1440; A+C=1680; B+C=1200. Adding all three: 2(A+B+C)=4320 → A+B+C=2160. C = 2160−(A+B) = 2160−1440 = ₹720. Also: B=2160−1680=₹480; A=2160−1200=₹960.
A+B=1440; A+C=1680; B+C=1200. Adding all three: 2(A+B+C)=4320 → A+B+C=2160. C = 2160−(A+B) = 2160−1440 = ₹720. Also: B=2160−1680=₹480; A=2160−1200=₹960.