📋 MOCK TEST – SET 25
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click option to reveal answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. NEP 2020 recommends the concept of ‘Bal Vatika’ for children aged: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 5–6 years
Bal Vatika is a one-year play-based preparatory class for children aged 5–6 years. Bridge between Anganwadi and Class 1. Focuses on motor skills, language, numeracy through play. Part of NEP 2020’s 5+3+3+4 structure.
Bal Vatika is a one-year play-based preparatory class for children aged 5–6 years. Bridge between Anganwadi and Class 1. Focuses on motor skills, language, numeracy through play. Part of NEP 2020’s 5+3+3+4 structure.
Q.2. NEP 2020 proposes the ‘National Research Foundation (NRF)’ to be set up at an annual budget of: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) ₹20,000 crore
NRF (Anusandhan NRF, enacted 2023): ₹20,000 crore over five years. Funds competitive research across disciplines. PM-chaired board. Replaces fragmented funding bodies.
NRF (Anusandhan NRF, enacted 2023): ₹20,000 crore over five years. Funds competitive research across disciplines. PM-chaired board. Replaces fragmented funding bodies.
Q.3. Under NEP 2020, ‘Academic Bank of Credits (ABC)’ allows students to: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Accumulate credits
ABC stores academic credits across recognised HEIs. Enables multiple entry/exit: Certificate (1 yr), Diploma (2 yr), Bachelor’s (3–4 yr). UGC launched ABC portal 2021.
ABC stores academic credits across recognised HEIs. Enables multiple entry/exit: Certificate (1 yr), Diploma (2 yr), Bachelor’s (3–4 yr). UGC launched ABC portal 2021.
Q.4. NEP 2020 mandates a minimum of ___% of school hours for co-curricular and sports activities: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 10%
NEP mandates at least 10% of school hours for arts integration, sports, and yoga. Bagless days once a week. Holistic development over rote learning.
NEP mandates at least 10% of school hours for arts integration, sports, and yoga. Bagless days once a week. Holistic development over rote learning.
Q.5. ‘Article 280’ establishes: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Finance Commission
Article 280 provides for Finance Commission every 5 years. Distributes Central taxes between Centre and States. 16th FC constituted 2023 (Arvind Panagariya).
Article 280 provides for Finance Commission every 5 years. Distributes Central taxes between Centre and States. 16th FC constituted 2023 (Arvind Panagariya).
Q.6. The ‘Partition of Bengal’ (1905) was done by: Indian History
Answer: (2) Lord Curzon
Partition of Bengal (16 Oct 1905) by Lord Curzon. Led to Swadeshi Movement. Annulled 1911 by Lord Hardinge. Nationalists called it “divide and rule”.
Partition of Bengal (16 Oct 1905) by Lord Curzon. Led to Swadeshi Movement. Annulled 1911 by Lord Hardinge. Nationalists called it “divide and rule”.
Q.7. The ‘Jalpaiguri’ district of West Bengal is known for: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Tea gardens and Dooars
Jalpaiguri is in the Dooars region. Famous for tea gardens, dense forests (Gorumara NP, Chapramari WLS, Buxa TR). Connects North Bengal hills to plains.
Jalpaiguri is in the Dooars region. Famous for tea gardens, dense forests (Gorumara NP, Chapramari WLS, Buxa TR). Connects North Bengal hills to plains.
Q.8. ‘Photosynthesis’ produces which gas as a by-product? Science
Answer: (2) Oxygen
6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. Oxygen released from water splitting (photolysis) in light reactions.
6CO₂ + 6H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. Oxygen released from water splitting (photolysis) in light reactions.
Q.9. The ‘Quit India Movement’ resolution was passed at: Indian History
Answer: (2) Bombay Session 1942
Quit India resolution passed at Bombay Session (8 Aug 1942), Gowalia Tank Maidan. Gandhi gave “Do or Die” slogan. Mass arrests followed.
Quit India resolution passed at Bombay Session (8 Aug 1942), Gowalia Tank Maidan. Gandhi gave “Do or Die” slogan. Mass arrests followed.
Q.10. The ‘Stand Up India’ scheme targets: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) SC/ST and women
Stand Up India (2016): Loans ₹10 lakh–₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST and one woman borrower per bank branch for greenfield enterprises.
Stand Up India (2016): Loans ₹10 lakh–₹1 crore to at least one SC/ST and one woman borrower per bank branch for greenfield enterprises.
Q.11. The ‘National Commission for Women (NCW)’ was established in: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) 1992
NCW established January 1992 under NCW Act 1990. Reviews constitutional/legal safeguards for women. Handles complaints of violation of women’s rights.
NCW established January 1992 under NCW Act 1990. Reviews constitutional/legal safeguards for women. Handles complaints of violation of women’s rights.
Q.12. ‘Krishnanagar’ in West Bengal is famous for: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Clay dolls
Krishnanagar (Nadia) = GI-tagged clay dolls, famous Jagaddhatri Puja. Also birthplace of Bipin Chandra Pal.
Krishnanagar (Nadia) = GI-tagged clay dolls, famous Jagaddhatri Puja. Also birthplace of Bipin Chandra Pal.
Q.13. The ‘G20 Summit 2023’ was hosted by India in: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) New Delhi
G20 Summit 2023 held 9–10 Sep 2023, Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Theme: “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”. African Union inducted as permanent member.
G20 Summit 2023 held 9–10 Sep 2023, Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. Theme: “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”. African Union inducted as permanent member.
Q.14. The ‘Contingency Fund of India’ is under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) President
Article 267: Contingency Fund held by President. Used for unforeseen expenditure. Corpus ₹500 crore. Parliament’s post-facto approval required.
Article 267: Contingency Fund held by President. Used for unforeseen expenditure. Corpus ₹500 crore. Parliament’s post-facto approval required.
Q.15. The ‘Buxa Tiger Reserve’ is in which district of WB? West Bengal
Answer: (2) Alipurduar
Buxa Tiger Reserve in Alipurduar district. Borders Bhutan. Elephant corridor, Royal Bengal tiger. Notified 1983.
Buxa Tiger Reserve in Alipurduar district. Borders Bhutan. Elephant corridor, Royal Bengal tiger. Notified 1983.
Q.16. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)’ replaced: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) NAIS
PMFBY (2016) replaced NAIS. Premium: 2% Kharif, 1.5% Rabi, 5% commercial. Technology-driven — drones, remote sensing for yield. 6 crore farmers covered.
PMFBY (2016) replaced NAIS. Premium: 2% Kharif, 1.5% Rabi, 5% commercial. Technology-driven — drones, remote sensing for yield. 6 crore farmers covered.
Q.17. The lightest metal is: Science
Answer: (2) Lithium
Lithium is the lightest metal (density 0.534 g/cm³). Least dense solid element. Used in batteries. Atomic no. 3.
Lithium is the lightest metal (density 0.534 g/cm³). Least dense solid element. Used in batteries. Atomic no. 3.
Q.18. ‘Article 324’ deals with: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Election Commission
Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in ECI. CEC + 2 ECs. CEC has tenure protection like a SC judge.
Article 324 vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in ECI. CEC + 2 ECs. CEC has tenure protection like a SC judge.
Q.19. The ‘Durga Puja’ of Kolkata was inscribed as UNESCO ICH in: West Bengal
Answer: (2) 2021
Durga Puja, Kolkata inscribed UNESCO ICH in December 2021. Largest festival of WB; 300+ year tradition.
Durga Puja, Kolkata inscribed UNESCO ICH in December 2021. Largest festival of WB; 300+ year tradition.
Q.20. ‘Operation Sindoor’ (May 2025) was conducted by India against: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Pakistan terror infrastructure
Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025): Precision strikes on 9 terror camps in Pakistan and POK following Pahalgam terror attack. Rafale jets used. Ceasefire accepted 10 May 2025.
Operation Sindoor (7 May 2025): Precision strikes on 9 terror camps in Pakistan and POK following Pahalgam terror attack. Rafale jets used. Ceasefire accepted 10 May 2025.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘ARDUOUS’:
Answer: (2) Difficult and tiring
Arduous = involving a lot of effort. Synonyms: Strenuous, Laborious, Gruelling. Antonym: Easy.
Arduous = involving a lot of effort. Synonyms: Strenuous, Laborious, Gruelling. Antonym: Easy.
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘VERBOSE’:
Answer: (2) Concise
Verbose = using more words than needed. Antonyms: Concise, Terse, Brief, Succinct.
Verbose = using more words than needed. Antonyms: Concise, Terse, Brief, Succinct.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Committee
Committee — double ‘m’, double ‘t’, double ‘e’. C-O-M-M-I-T-T-E-E. All other options have missing doubled letters.
Committee — double ‘m’, double ‘t’, double ‘e’. C-O-M-M-I-T-T-E-E. All other options have missing doubled letters.
Q.24. Fill in: She insisted ________ going alone.
Answer: (1) on
Insist on + gerund/noun. “She insisted on going alone.”
Insist on + gerund/noun. “She insisted on going alone.”
Q.25. Correct plural of ‘Criterion’:
Answer: (2) Criteria
Greek origin: Criterion → Criteria. “Criterias” is always incorrect.
Greek origin: Criterion → Criteria. “Criterias” is always incorrect.
Q.26. Idiom: “Under the weather”
Answer: (2) Feeling slightly ill
“Under the weather” = not feeling well. Origin: nautical — ill sailors sent below deck.
“Under the weather” = not feeling well. Origin: nautical — ill sailors sent below deck.
Q.27. Choose the correct sentence:
Answer: (2)
Each is singular → singular verb “has”. “Each of the” + plural noun + singular verb.
Each is singular → singular verb “has”. “Each of the” + plural noun + singular verb.
Q.28. Change to Indirect Speech: She said, “I am very tired today.”
Answer: (2)
“am” → “was”; “I” → “she”; “today” → “that day”.
“am” → “was”; “I” → “she”; “today” → “that day”.
Q.29. One word for: A person who cannot be corrected.
Answer: (2) Incorrigible
Incorrigible = bad habits cannot be corrected. “Infallible” = cannot make mistakes; “Insolvent” = bankrupt.
Incorrigible = bad habits cannot be corrected. “Infallible” = cannot make mistakes; “Insolvent” = bankrupt.
Q.30. Spot the error: “The jury (A) / have given (B) / its verdict (C) / unanimously. (D)”
Answer: (2) B — “has given”
Jury acting as a unit → singular verb. “its verdict” confirms singular. “have” → has.
Jury acting as a unit → singular verb. “its verdict” confirms singular. “have” → has.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Odd one out: Cricket, Football, Chess, Tennis
Answer: (2) Chess
Cricket, Football, Tennis = outdoor sports. Chess = indoor board game; no physical movement.
Cricket, Football, Tennis = outdoor sports. Chess = indoor board game; no physical movement.
Q.32. Complete the series: 7, 14, 28, 56, ___
Answer: (2) 112
Each term ×2: 7→14→28→56→112.
Each term ×2: 7→14→28→56→112.
Q.33. If ‘MANGO’ is coded as ‘OCPIQ’, how is ‘GRAPE’ coded?
Answer: (1) ITCRG
+2 shift: M→O, A→C, N→P, G→I, O→Q ✓. GRAPE: G→I, R→T, A→C, P→R, E→G = ITCRG.
+2 shift: M→O, A→C, N→P, G→I, O→Q ✓. GRAPE: G→I, R→T, A→C, P→R, E→G = ITCRG.
Q.34. Complete the series: C, F, I, L, ___
Answer: (2) O
+3 each: C(3)→F(6)→I(9)→L(12)→O(15).
+3 each: C(3)→F(6)→I(9)→L(12)→O(15).
Q.35. Mohan’s mother is the only daughter of Geeta’s father. How is Geeta related to Mohan?
Answer: (2) Mother
Geeta’s father’s only daughter = Geeta herself. So Geeta = Mohan’s mother.
Geeta’s father’s only daughter = Geeta herself. So Geeta = Mohan’s mother.
Q.36. In a row of girls, Sita is 11th from left and 15th from right. How many girls are in the row?
Answer: (2) 25
Total = 11 + 15 − 1 = 25.
Total = 11 + 15 − 1 = 25.
Q.37. Ramesh walks 5 km East, turns North and walks 12 km. His distance from starting point?
Answer: (2) 13 km
√(5² + 12²) = √(25+144) = √169 = 13 km.
√(5² + 12²) = √(25+144) = √169 = 13 km.
Q.38. If 1 January 2025 was Wednesday, what day was 1 January 2026?
Answer: (1) Thursday
2025 is not a leap year (365 days). 365 mod 7 = 1. Wednesday + 1 = Thursday.
2025 is not a leap year (365 days). 365 mod 7 = 1. Wednesday + 1 = Thursday.
Q.39. Find the missing term: 6, 11, 21, 41, 81, ___
Answer: (2) 161
×2 − 1: 6×2−1=11, 11×2−1=21, 21×2−1=41, 41×2−1=81, 81×2−1=161.
×2 − 1: 6×2−1=11, 11×2−1=21, 21×2−1=41, 41×2−1=81, 81×2−1=161.
Q.40. Statements: No teachers are students. All students are children.
Conclusions: I. No teachers are children. II. Some children are not teachers.
Conclusions: I. No teachers are children. II. Some children are not teachers.
Answer: (2) Only II follows
All students → children, but not teachers → Some children are not teachers (II ✓). I — not definite. Only II follows.
All students → children, but not teachers → Some children are not teachers (II ✓). I — not definite. Only II follows.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. LCM of 12, 18, 24 and 36:
Answer: (2) 72
12=2²×3; 18=2×3²; 24=2³×3; 36=2²×3². LCM = 2³×3² = 72.
12=2²×3; 18=2×3²; 24=2³×3; 36=2²×3². LCM = 2³×3² = 72.
Q.42. Simplify: 48 ÷ 6 × 2 + 3 − 1
Answer: (2) 18
BODMAS: 48÷6=8; 8×2=16; 16+3=19; 19−1=18.
BODMAS: 48÷6=8; 8×2=16; 16+3=19; 19−1=18.
Q.43. A can do a work in 10 days and B in 15 days. If they work together for 3 days, what fraction of work is left?
Answer: (1) 1/2
Together per day = 1/10+1/15 = 5/30 = 1/6. In 3 days = 1/2 done. Left = 1 − 1/2 = 1/2.
Together per day = 1/10+1/15 = 5/30 = 1/6. In 3 days = 1/2 done. Left = 1 − 1/2 = 1/2.
Q.44. Two trains 180 m and 120 m long move in the same direction at 54 km/h and 36 km/h. Time to cross each other?
Answer: (2) 60 sec
Relative speed = 54−36 = 18 km/h = 5 m/s. Total length = 300 m. Time = 300÷5 = 60 sec.
Relative speed = 54−36 = 18 km/h = 5 m/s. Total length = 300 m. Time = 300÷5 = 60 sec.
Q.45. ₹5,400 is divided among A, B, and C in the ratio 1:2:3. B’s share is:
Answer: (2) ₹1,800
Total parts = 6. One part = 5400÷6 = 900. B’s share (2 parts) = 2×900 = ₹1,800.
Total parts = 6. One part = 5400÷6 = 900. B’s share (2 parts) = 2×900 = ₹1,800.
Q.46. The average of 6 numbers is 24. If one number is removed the average becomes 21. Find the removed number.
Answer: (2) 39
Sum of 6 = 144. Sum of 5 = 105. Removed = 144−105 = 39.
Sum of 6 = 144. Sum of 5 = 105. Removed = 144−105 = 39.
Q.47. A shopkeeper buys an item for ₹840 and sells at 15% profit. SP is:
Answer: (2) ₹966
SP = 840 × 1.15 = ₹966.
SP = 840 × 1.15 = ₹966.
Q.48. Find Compound Interest on ₹8,000 at 10% per annum for 2 years:
Answer: (2) ₹1,680
A = 8000×(1.1)² = 9,680. CI = ₹1,680.
A = 8000×(1.1)² = 9,680. CI = ₹1,680.
Q.49. If 40% of a number exceeds 25% of the same number by 60, find the number.
Answer: (2) 400
0.40x − 0.25x = 60 → 0.15x = 60 → x = 400.
0.40x − 0.25x = 60 → 0.15x = 60 → x = 400.
Q.50. The perimeter of a rectangle is 80 cm and its length is 25 cm. Area of the rectangle is:
Answer: (2) 375 cm²
2(l+b)=80 → b=15. Area = 25×15 = 375 cm².
2(l+b)=80 → b=15. Area = 25×15 = 375 cm².
Q.51. A train 200 m long passes a telegraph post in 10 seconds. Its speed in km/h is:
Answer: (2) 72 km/h
Speed = 200÷10 = 20 m/s = 20×(18/5) = 72 km/h.
Speed = 200÷10 = 20 m/s = 20×(18/5) = 72 km/h.
Q.52. A is 4 years older than B. 5 years ago, A was twice as old as B. Find A’s present age.
Answer: (2) 13 years
B=x, A=x+4. x+4−5=2(x−5) → x=9. A=9+4=13 years.
B=x, A=x+4. x+4−5=2(x−5) → x=9. A=9+4=13 years.
Q.53. A tank is filled by pipe A in 20 min and emptied by pipe B in 30 min. If both are opened, time to fill the tank from empty:
Answer: (2) 60 min
Net rate = 1/20 − 1/30 = 1/60. Time = 60 min.
Net rate = 1/20 − 1/30 = 1/60. Time = 60 min.
Q.54. The present ages of father and son are in ratio 7:2. After 10 years, ratio becomes 9:4. Father’s present age?
Answer: (2) 35 years
Father=7x, son=2x. (7x+10)/(2x+10)=9/4 → x=5. Father=35 years.
Father=7x, son=2x. (7x+10)/(2x+10)=9/4 → x=5. Father=35 years.
Q.55. The area of a triangle with base 18 cm and height 12 cm is:
Answer: (1) 108 cm²
Area = (1/2)×18×12 = 108 cm².
Area = (1/2)×18×12 = 108 cm².
Q.56. If 12 men can do a piece of work in 20 days, in how many days will 15 men do the same work?
Answer: (2) 16 days
12×20 = 15×d → d = 240÷15 = 16 days.
12×20 = 15×d → d = 240÷15 = 16 days.
Q.57. A dealer marks an article at ₹2,000 and gives two successive discounts of 10% and 5%. The selling price is:
Answer: (2) ₹1,710
After 10%: 2000×0.9=1800. After 5%: 1800×0.95=₹1,710.
After 10%: 2000×0.9=1800. After 5%: 1800×0.95=₹1,710.
Q.58. Which of the following is NOT divisible by 4?
Answer: (2) 1034
Last two digits divisible by 4: 24÷4=6✓; 34÷4=8.5✗; 48÷4=12✓; 96÷4=24✓. Only 1034 fails.
Last two digits divisible by 4: 24÷4=6✓; 34÷4=8.5✗; 48÷4=12✓; 96÷4=24✓. Only 1034 fails.
Q.59. A vendor sells 20 articles for ₹60, gaining the CP of 5 articles. Profit% is:
Answer: (2) 33.33%
Profit = CP of 5. CP of 20 − CP of 5 = CP of 15 = SP of 20 = ₹60. CP per article = 4. Profit% = (CP of 5)/(CP of 15) = 5/15 = 33.33%.
Profit = CP of 5. CP of 20 − CP of 5 = CP of 15 = SP of 20 = ₹60. CP per article = 4. Profit% = (CP of 5)/(CP of 15) = 5/15 = 33.33%.
Q.60. The volume of a cylinder with radius 7 cm and height 10 cm is (π = 22/7):
Answer: (2) 1,540 cm³
V = πr²h = (22/7)×49×10 = 22×7×10 = 1,540 cm³.
V = πr²h = (22/7)×49×10 = 22×7×10 = 1,540 cm³.