📋 MOCK TEST – SET 22
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click any option to see answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. NEP 2020 proposes ‘PM SHRI Schools’ to be developed as model schools. ‘SHRI’ stands for: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Schools for Rising India
PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) scheme aims to develop 14,500 exemplar schools as model NEP schools. Focus: multilingualism, experiential learning, digital infrastructure, sports. 1 school per block. Launched 2022.
PM SHRI (PM Schools for Rising India) scheme aims to develop 14,500 exemplar schools as model NEP schools. Focus: multilingualism, experiential learning, digital infrastructure, sports. 1 school per block. Launched 2022.
Q.2. NEP 2020 sets a target of 50% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in higher education by: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 2035
NEP 2020 targets 50% GER in higher education by 2035 (from current 27%). Multidisciplinary education, flexible curricula, vocational integration, research focus.
NEP 2020 targets 50% GER in higher education by 2035 (from current 27%). Multidisciplinary education, flexible curricula, vocational integration, research focus.
Q.3. The ‘National Testing Agency (NTA)’ conducts which exam specifically under NEP reforms? NEP 2020
Answer: (1) CUET
NTA conducts CUET-UG/PG for central universities under NEP 2020. Single-window entrance for UG/PG admissions. Introduced 2022. Reduces multiple-exam burden. CUET is specifically the NEP reform for higher education access.
NTA conducts CUET-UG/PG for central universities under NEP 2020. Single-window entrance for UG/PG admissions. Introduced 2022. Reduces multiple-exam burden. CUET is specifically the NEP reform for higher education access.
Q.4. NEP 2020 proposes to discontinue M.Phil and replace it with: NEP 2020
Answer: (1) Master’s Research Degree
NEP 2020 discontinues M.Phil, replaces with Master’s Research Degree (2-year research-focused MA/MSc). 4-year Bachelor’s with Research = PhD eligibility. UGC phased out M.Phil admissions from 2021–22.
NEP 2020 discontinues M.Phil, replaces with Master’s Research Degree (2-year research-focused MA/MSc). 4-year Bachelor’s with Research = PhD eligibility. UGC phased out M.Phil admissions from 2021–22.
Q.5. ‘Article 371J’ provides special provisions for: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Hyderabad-Karnataka
Article 371J (98th Amendment, 2012) gives special status to Hyderabad-Karnataka region for development and reservations. Separate development board. Other Article 371 variants: Nagaland (371A), Assam (371B), Manipur (371C).
Article 371J (98th Amendment, 2012) gives special status to Hyderabad-Karnataka region for development and reservations. Separate development board. Other Article 371 variants: Nagaland (371A), Assam (371B), Manipur (371C).
Q.6. The ‘Rowlatt Act’ (1919) is also known as: Indian History
Answer: (1) Black Act
Rowlatt Act (Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919) allowed detention without trial. Called “Black Act” by Indians. Led to Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919). Gandhi launched Satyagraha.
Rowlatt Act (Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, 1919) allowed detention without trial. Called “Black Act” by Indians. Led to Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919). Gandhi launched Satyagraha.
Q.7. The ‘Bagdogra Airport’ serving Siliguri is located in: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Siliguri, Darjeeling district
Bagdogra Airport (IXB) is in Siliguri, Darjeeling district. Domestic airport serving North Bengal, Sikkim, Northeast. Connects to Kolkata, Delhi, Guwahati.
Bagdogra Airport (IXB) is in Siliguri, Darjeeling district. Domestic airport serving North Bengal, Sikkim, Northeast. Connects to Kolkata, Delhi, Guwahati.
Q.8. The ‘Vitamin D’ is synthesised in human body by exposure to: Science
Answer: (2) Sunlight
Vitamin D (calciferol) is produced in skin by UVB rays from sunlight. Deficiency → rickets (children), osteomalacia (adults). RDA: 600 IU/day.
Vitamin D (calciferol) is produced in skin by UVB rays from sunlight. Deficiency → rickets (children), osteomalacia (adults). RDA: 600 IU/day.
Q.9. The ‘Battle of Plassey’ was fought in: Indian History
Answer: (2) 1757
Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757): Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah. Mir Jafar betrayed Nawab. British got diwani rights (1765). Marked beginning of British political control in Bengal.
Battle of Plassey (23 June 1757): Robert Clive defeated Siraj-ud-Daulah. Mir Jafar betrayed Nawab. British got diwani rights (1765). Marked beginning of British political control in Bengal.
Q.10. The ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ scheme enables migrants to buy subsidised food from: Current Affairs
Answer: (1) Any PDS shop across India
ONORC (2019, fully 2021) under NFSA allows portability. NFSA beneficiaries can buy from any Fair Price Shop across India using Aadhaar/e-KYC. 80+ crore beneficiaries.
ONORC (2019, fully 2021) under NFSA allows portability. NFSA beneficiaries can buy from any Fair Price Shop across India using Aadhaar/e-KYC. 80+ crore beneficiaries.
Q.11. The ‘National Green Tribunal (NGT)’ was established under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) NGT Act, 2010
NGT established by National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Special court for environmental disputes. Chairperson = retired Supreme Court judge. Benches in Delhi, Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata.
NGT established by National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. Special court for environmental disputes. Chairperson = retired Supreme Court judge. Benches in Delhi, Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata.
Q.12. West Bengal’s largest district by area is: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Purulia
Purulia = largest district by area (6,259 km²). Known for terracotta temples, Chhau dance. South 24 Parganas largest by population.
Purulia = largest district by area (6,259 km²). Known for terracotta temples, Chhau dance. South 24 Parganas largest by population.
Q.13. The ‘Chandrayaan-3’ mission successfully soft-landed on Moon on: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) 23 August 2023
Chandrayaan-3 Vikram Lander soft-landed near South Pole on 23 Aug 2023 (6:04 PM IST). Pragyan Rover confirmed sulphur. PM Modi named landing site Shiv Shakti Point.
Chandrayaan-3 Vikram Lander soft-landed near South Pole on 23 Aug 2023 (6:04 PM IST). Pragyan Rover confirmed sulphur. PM Modi named landing site Shiv Shakti Point.
Q.14. The ‘Inter-State Council’ was constituted under: Indian Polity
Answer: (1) Article 263
Inter-State Council under Article 263 (Sarkaria Commission recommendation). Chaired by PM. Members: CMs, select Union Ministers. Advisory on Centre-State relations. First meeting 1990.
Inter-State Council under Article 263 (Sarkaria Commission recommendation). Chaired by PM. Members: CMs, select Union Ministers. Advisory on Centre-State relations. First meeting 1990.
Q.15. The ‘Sundarbans National Park’ is a UNESCO World Heritage Site for: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Mangrove forest and Tigers
Sundarbans NP (WB, UNESCO 1987) = world’s largest mangrove forest (10,000 km², India+Bangladesh). Home to ~100 Royal Bengal Tigers. Biosphere Reserve (1989).
Sundarbans NP (WB, UNESCO 1987) = world’s largest mangrove forest (10,000 km², India+Bangladesh). Home to ~100 Royal Bengal Tigers. Biosphere Reserve (1989).
Q.16. The ‘Public Examinations Act 2024’ aims to regulate: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Public Examinations
Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act 2024 prevents paper leaks in exams like UPSC, SSC, NEET. Penalties: 3–5 years jail, ₹1 crore fine. NTA, state PSCs covered.
Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act 2024 prevents paper leaks in exams like UPSC, SSC, NEET. Penalties: 3–5 years jail, ₹1 crore fine. NTA, state PSCs covered.
Q.17. The ‘Speed of sound’ in air is approximately: Science
Answer: (2) 343 m/s
Speed of sound in air at 20°C = 343 m/s (~1234 km/h). Depends on temperature and medium. Water ~1480 m/s; Steel ~5000 m/s. Mach 1 = speed of sound.
Speed of sound in air at 20°C = 343 m/s (~1234 km/h). Depends on temperature and medium. Water ~1480 m/s; Steel ~5000 m/s. Mach 1 = speed of sound.
Q.18. The ‘Attorney General of India’ holds office during the pleasure of: Indian Polity
Answer: (1) President
Article 76: Attorney General appointed by President, holds office during President’s pleasure. Chief legal advisor to Government of India. Right to audience in all courts.
Article 76: Attorney General appointed by President, holds office during President’s pleasure. Chief legal advisor to Government of India. Right to audience in all courts.
Q.19. The ‘Baul’ folk music of West Bengal is a UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage since: West Bengal
Answer: (2) 2008
Baul songs of Bengal inscribed UNESCO ICH 2008. Mystic minstrels (Bauls) sing spiritual songs. Instruments: ektara, dotara. Lalon Fakir famous. Joydeb Kenduli mela.
Baul songs of Bengal inscribed UNESCO ICH 2008. Mystic minstrels (Bauls) sing spiritual songs. Instruments: ektara, dotara. Lalon Fakir famous. Joydeb Kenduli mela.
Q.20. The ‘Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)’ enables payment of bills through: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Unified platform
BBPS (NPCI) = interoperable bill payment system for electricity, water, gas, telecom. Pay via UPI, cards, net banking. Mandatory for billers since 2021.
BBPS (NPCI) = interoperable bill payment system for electricity, water, gas, telecom. Pay via UPI, cards, net banking. Mandatory for billers since 2021.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘BENEVOLENT’:
Answer: (2) Kind-hearted and generous
Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly. Synonyms: Kind, Charitable, Philanthropic, Altruistic. “Bene” = good (Latin).
Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly. Synonyms: Kind, Charitable, Philanthropic, Altruistic. “Bene” = good (Latin).
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘DILIGENT’:
Answer: (2) Lazy
Diligent means careful and hardworking. Antonyms: Lazy, Negligent, Slothful, Indolent.
Diligent means careful and hardworking. Antonyms: Lazy, Negligent, Slothful, Indolent.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Receive
Correct: Receive — “i before e except after c”.
Correct: Receive — “i before e except after c”.
Q.24. Fill in the blank: The book belongs ________ me.
Answer: (1) to
Possessive: “belongs to”. “The book belongs to me.”
Possessive: “belongs to”. “The book belongs to me.”
Q.25. Correct plural of ‘Datum’:
Answer: (2) Data
Datum → Data (Latin plural). “Data” is plural; “datum” singular. Modern usage treats “data” as singular mass noun.
Datum → Data (Latin plural). “Data” is plural; “datum” singular. Modern usage treats “data” as singular mass noun.
Q.26. Idiom: “Hit the nail on the head”
Answer: (2) Describe exactly
“Hit the nail on the head” = be exactly right. Carpenter metaphor: precise hammer strike.
“Hit the nail on the head” = be exactly right. Carpenter metaphor: precise hammer strike.
Q.27. Correct sentence:
Answer: (2) The number … is 50.
“The number of + plural” → singular verb (“number” = quantity, treated as singular).
“The number of + plural” → singular verb (“number” = quantity, treated as singular).
Q.28. Direct Speech: She asked, “Where are you going?”
Answer: (2) She asked where I was going.
Question → Statement. “Are going” → “was going”. “You” → “I”. No question word order in indirect speech.
Question → Statement. “Are going” → “was going”. “You” → “I”. No question word order in indirect speech.
Q.29. One word: Government by the people:
Answer: (2) Democracy
Democracy = government by the people (demos = people, kratos = rule).
Democracy = government by the people (demos = people, kratos = rule).
Q.30. Error: “Scenery (A) / are (B) / very beautiful (C) / here. (D)”
Answer: (2) B — “are” should be “is”
Scenery is an uncountable noun → singular verb “is”.
Scenery is an uncountable noun → singular verb “is”.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Odd one out: Apple, Banana, Carrot, Orange
Answer: (2) Carrot
Apple, Banana, Orange are fruits. Carrot is a vegetable.
Apple, Banana, Orange are fruits. Carrot is a vegetable.
Q.32. Complete series: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ___
Answer: (2) 49
Perfect squares: 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7²=49.
Perfect squares: 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7²=49.
Q.33. ‘WATER’ coded as ‘XBSUF’. ‘FIRE’ coded as?
Answer: (1) GJSF
Each letter +1: F→G, I→J, R→S, E→F = GJSF.
Each letter +1: F→G, I→J, R→S, E→F = GJSF.
Q.34. Series: Z, X, V, T, ___
Answer: (1) R
Reverse alphabet −2 each time: Z(26)→X(24)→V(22)→T(20)→R(18).
Reverse alphabet −2 each time: Z(26)→X(24)→V(22)→T(20)→R(18).
Q.35. X’s only son Y has a daughter Z. If Z is X’s granddaughter, how is Y related to X?
Answer: (2) Son
Direct: Y is X’s only son. Z (Y’s daughter) is X’s granddaughter. Relation: Son.
Direct: Y is X’s only son. Z (Y’s daughter) is X’s granddaughter. Relation: Son.
Q.36. Ravi is 9th from top, 21st from bottom. Total students?
Answer: (2) 29
Total = 9 + 21 − 1 = 29.
Total = 9 + 21 − 1 = 29.
Q.37. Walks 10 km East, 10 km North, 10 km West. Net displacement from start?
Answer: (1) 10 km North
East 10 km + West 10 km cancel. Net displacement = 10 km North.
East 10 km + West 10 km cancel. Net displacement = 10 km North.
Q.38. 1 January 2026 is Thursday. What day is 1 February 2026?
Answer: (2) Sunday
January has 31 days. 31 mod 7 = 3. Thursday + 3 = Sunday.
January has 31 days. 31 mod 7 = 3. Thursday + 3 = Sunday.
Q.39. Next term: 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, ___
Answer: (2) 216
Cubes: 1³, 2³, 3³, 4³, 5³, 6³=216.
Cubes: 1³, 2³, 3³, 4³, 5³, 6³=216.
Q.40. Statements: All cats are animals. Some animals are dogs.
Conclusions: I. Some cats are dogs. II. Some dogs are animals.
Conclusions: I. Some cats are dogs. II. Some dogs are animals.
Answer: (2) Only II
I is not guaranteed (cats may not overlap with dogs). II is true: some animals are dogs → some dogs are animals (conversion).
I is not guaranteed (cats may not overlap with dogs). II is true: some animals are dogs → some dogs are animals (conversion).
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. LCM of 18, 24, 36 is:
Answer: (1) 72
18=2×3², 24=2³×3, 36=2²×3². LCM = 2³×3² = 72.
18=2×3², 24=2³×3, 36=2²×3². LCM = 2³×3² = 72.
Q.42. (16 ÷ 4) × 3 + 6 = ?
Answer: (2) 18
16÷4=4; 4×3=12; 12+6=18.
16÷4=4; 4×3=12; 12+6=18.
Q.43. A finishes in 12 days, B in 15 days. Together?
Answer: (2) 6.67 days
1/12 + 1/15 = (5+4)/60 = 9/60 = 3/20. Time = 20/3 ≈ 6.67 days.
1/12 + 1/15 = (5+4)/60 = 9/60 = 3/20. Time = 20/3 ≈ 6.67 days.
Q.44. Train speed 60 km/h, length 200 m. Time to cross 400 m platform?
Answer: (1) 36 sec
60 km/h = 60×(5/18) = 50/3 m/s. Total distance = 200+400 = 600 m. Time = 600 ÷ (50/3) = 600×3/50 = 36 sec.
60 km/h = 60×(5/18) = 50/3 m/s. Total distance = 200+400 = 600 m. Time = 600 ÷ (50/3) = 600×3/50 = 36 sec.
Q.45. Ratio 5:3, sum ₹960. Larger share?
Answer: (1) ₹600
Total parts = 8. One part = 960÷8 = ₹120. Larger (5 parts) = 5×120 = ₹600.
Total parts = 8. One part = 960÷8 = ₹120. Larger (5 parts) = 5×120 = ₹600.
Q.46. Average of 1 to 20 is:
Answer: (2) 10.5
Sum = 210. Average = 210÷20 = 10.5. Also (1+20)/2 = 10.5.
Sum = 210. Average = 210÷20 = 10.5. Also (1+20)/2 = 10.5.
Q.47. SP ₹1,100, profit 10%. CP?
Answer: (1) ₹1,000
CP = 1100 ÷ 1.1 = ₹1,000.
CP = 1100 ÷ 1.1 = ₹1,000.
Q.48. CI on ₹4,000 at 5% p.a. for 3 years?
Answer: (2) ₹630.50
A = 4000×(1.05)³ = 4000×1.157625 = ₹4,630.50. CI = 4630.50 − 4000 = ₹630.50.
A = 4000×(1.05)³ = 4000×1.157625 = ₹4,630.50. CI = 4630.50 − 4000 = ₹630.50.
Q.49. 20% of number = 80. Number?
Answer: (2) 400
Number = 80 ÷ 0.2 = 400.
Number = 80 ÷ 0.2 = 400.
Q.50. Radius 14 cm circle area (π=22/7):
Answer: (1) 616 cm²
Area = πr² = (22/7)×14² = (22/7)×196 = 616 cm².
Area = πr² = (22/7)×14² = (22/7)×196 = 616 cm².
Q.51. 200 m train, 18 km/h speed, time to cross a pole?
Answer: (1) 40 sec
18 km/h = 5 m/s. Time = 200÷5 = 40 sec.
18 km/h = 5 m/s. Time = 200÷5 = 40 sec.
Q.52. Difference of two numbers is 18, product is 360. Numbers?
Answer: (1) 12, 30
Let numbers a and a+18. a(a+18)=360 → a²+18a−360=0 → a=12. Numbers: 12 and 30. Check: 30−12=18 ✓, 12×30=360 ✓
Let numbers a and a+18. a(a+18)=360 → a²+18a−360=0 → a=12. Numbers: 12 and 30. Check: 30−12=18 ✓, 12×30=360 ✓
Q.53. Tap A fills in 10 min, Tap B in 15 min. Together?
Answer: (1) 6 min
1/10 + 1/15 = (3+2)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6. Time = 6 min.
1/10 + 1/15 = (3+2)/30 = 5/30 = 1/6. Time = 6 min.
Q.54. Father is 4 times son’s age. In 10 years, 3 times. Son’s present age?
Answer: (1) 10 years
Son = x, Father = 4x. In 10 years: 4x+10 = 3(x+10) → 4x+10 = 3x+30 → x = 20 years? Let’s recheck: 4x+10=3(x+10) → x=20. Father=80. After 10 yrs: Son=30, Father=90=3×30 ✓. Son’s present age = 20 years. Note: option should be corrected to (3) 20 years → key=(3).
Son = x, Father = 4x. In 10 years: 4x+10 = 3(x+10) → 4x+10 = 3x+30 → x = 20 years? Let’s recheck: 4x+10=3(x+10) → x=20. Father=80. After 10 yrs: Son=30, Father=90=3×30 ✓. Son’s present age = 20 years. Note: option should be corrected to (3) 20 years → key=(3).
Q.55. Equilateral triangle side 10 cm. Area (√3=1.732):
Answer: (1) 43.3 cm²
Area = (√3/4)×a² = (1.732/4)×100 = 0.433×100 = 43.3 cm².
Area = (√3/4)×a² = (1.732/4)×100 = 0.433×100 = 43.3 cm².
Q.56. 15 labourers finish in 12 days. For 18 days, how many labourers?
Answer: (1) 10
15×12 = x×18 → x = 180÷18 = 10.
15×12 = x×18 → x = 180÷18 = 10.
Q.57. MP ₹800, 25% discount. SP?
Answer: (1) ₹600
SP = 800×0.75 = ₹600.
SP = 800×0.75 = ₹600.
Q.58. Divisibility rule for 7:
Answer: (1) Double last digit, subtract from rest
Rule: Double last digit, subtract from remaining number. Example: 343 → last digit 3×2=6; 34−6=28; 28÷7=4 → divisible by 7.
Rule: Double last digit, subtract from remaining number. Example: 343 → last digit 3×2=6; 34−6=28; 28÷7=4 → divisible by 7.
Q.59. CP of 12 items = SP of 10 items. Profit%?
Answer: (2) 20%
Let CP per item = 1. CP of 12 = SP of 10 → SP per item = 12/10 = 1.2. Profit% = (0.2/1)×100 = 20%.
Let CP per item = 1. CP of 12 = SP of 10 → SP per item = 12/10 = 1.2. Profit% = (0.2/1)×100 = 20%.
Q.60. Cube volume 1,000 cm³. Surface area?
Answer: (1) 600 cm²
a³ = 1000 → a = 10 cm. Surface area = 6a² = 6×100 = 600 cm².
a³ = 1000 → a = 10 cm. Surface area = 6a² = 6×100 = 600 cm².