📋 MOCK TEST – SET 20 (Milestone Set)
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click any option to see answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. NEP 2020 introduces ‘SAMBAL’ scheme to strengthen school infrastructure. ‘SAMBAL’ stands for: NEP 2020
Answer: (3) Scheme for Academic Management and Basic Amenities in Schools
SAMBAL is a scheme under NEP 2020/SAMAGRA SHIKSHA to strengthen school infrastructure and management. Focuses on annual planning, budget analysis, and leveraging resources for basic amenities (water, toilets, electricity, digital infrastructure). Targets all government schools to achieve 100% GER and quality improvement.
SAMBAL is a scheme under NEP 2020/SAMAGRA SHIKSHA to strengthen school infrastructure and management. Focuses on annual planning, budget analysis, and leveraging resources for basic amenities (water, toilets, electricity, digital infrastructure). Targets all government schools to achieve 100% GER and quality improvement.
Q.2. NEP 2020 aims to phase out all single-stream institutions by: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 2040
NEP 2020 targets all HEIs to become multidisciplinary by 2040, phasing out single-stream institutions. Aims for 3,500 large multidisciplinary universities and 10,000 autonomous degree-granting colleges.
NEP 2020 targets all HEIs to become multidisciplinary by 2040, phasing out single-stream institutions. Aims for 3,500 large multidisciplinary universities and 10,000 autonomous degree-granting colleges.
Q.3. The ‘National Credit Framework (NCrF)’ under NEP 2020 enables credit transfer between: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) School, higher, and vocational education
NCrF (2023) creates a unified credit system across school, higher, and vocational education. Students earn credits for academics and skills. Enables multiple entry-exit and credit banking via ABC.
NCrF (2023) creates a unified credit system across school, higher, and vocational education. Students earn credits for academics and skills. Enables multiple entry-exit and credit banking via ABC.
Q.4. NEP 2020 proposes to establish ‘National Research Foundation (NRF)’ with initial funding of: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) ₹50,000 crore over 5 years
NRF established with ₹50,000 crore over 5 years. Apex body to promote R&D across sciences, social sciences, arts, humanities. Funded 70% government, 30% private. Bill passed 2023.
NRF established with ₹50,000 crore over 5 years. Apex body to promote R&D across sciences, social sciences, arts, humanities. Funded 70% government, 30% private. Bill passed 2023.
Q.5. The ‘Preamble’ of the Indian Constitution was amended only once by which amendment? Indian Polity
Answer: (1) 42nd Amendment
Preamble amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 during Emergency. Added: “Socialist”, “Secular”, and “Integrity”. Original had “Unity of the Nation”; now “Unity and Integrity of the Nation”.
Preamble amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 during Emergency. Added: “Socialist”, “Secular”, and “Integrity”. Original had “Unity of the Nation”; now “Unity and Integrity of the Nation”.
Q.6. The ‘Round Table Conferences’ (1930–32) were held in London to discuss: Indian History
Answer: (2) Constitutional reforms
Three Round Table Conferences (1930, 1931, 1932) held to discuss future Constitution of India. RTC-1 boycotted by INC. RTC-2: Gandhi attended. Led to Communal Award (1932) → modified by Poona Pact. Basis for Government of India Act 1935.
Three Round Table Conferences (1930, 1931, 1932) held to discuss future Constitution of India. RTC-1 boycotted by INC. RTC-2: Gandhi attended. Led to Communal Award (1932) → modified by Poona Pact. Basis for Government of India Act 1935.
Q.7. Siliguri, West Bengal is known as the ‘Gateway of North-East India’ because: West Bengal / Geography
Answer: (2) Siliguri Corridor connects to North-East
Siliguri is “Gateway of North-East India” because the Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck, ~22 km wide) connects West Bengal to the 8 North-East states. Major hub: NJP railway station, Bagdogra Airport, NH-31.
Siliguri is “Gateway of North-East India” because the Siliguri Corridor (Chicken’s Neck, ~22 km wide) connects West Bengal to the 8 North-East states. Major hub: NJP railway station, Bagdogra Airport, NH-31.
Q.8. The ‘pH value’ of human blood is approximately: Science / Biology
Answer: (2) 7.4
Normal human blood pH = 7.35–7.45 (slightly alkaline). Maintained by bicarbonate buffer system. Acidosis (pH <7.35), Alkalosis (pH >7.45). Gastric juice (~2), Bile (~8), Urine (4.5–8).
Normal human blood pH = 7.35–7.45 (slightly alkaline). Maintained by bicarbonate buffer system. Acidosis (pH <7.35), Alkalosis (pH >7.45). Gastric juice (~2), Bile (~8), Urine (4.5–8).
Q.9. The ‘Treaty of Sugauli’ (1816) ended which war between British and: Indian History
Answer: (2) Nepal
Treaty of Sugauli (2 December 1816) ended the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–16). Nepal ceded Sikkim, Kumaon, Garhwal, western Terai. Set Nepal’s modern boundaries. British gained Doon Valley (Dehradun).
Treaty of Sugauli (2 December 1816) ended the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–16). Nepal ceded Sikkim, Kumaon, Garhwal, western Terai. Set Nepal’s modern boundaries. British gained Doon Valley (Dehradun).
Q.10. The ‘Kolkata Port Trust’ was established in: West Bengal / Economy
Answer: (1) 1870
Kolkata Port Trust (now Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) was established in 1870 under the Indian Ports Act. India’s oldest major port (founded 1690 as a trading post). Two docks: Kolkata (upstream) and Haldia (opened 1977, downstream). Handles ~30 million tonnes cargo annually.
Kolkata Port Trust (now Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port) was established in 1870 under the Indian Ports Act. India’s oldest major port (founded 1690 as a trading post). Two docks: Kolkata (upstream) and Haldia (opened 1977, downstream). Handles ~30 million tonnes cargo annually.
Q.11. The ‘Election Commission of India’ is a: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Constitutional body
ECI is an independent constitutional body under Article 324. Conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President, VP. Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners. Supported by Representation of People Act, 1951.
ECI is an independent constitutional body under Article 324. Conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President, VP. Chief Election Commissioner + 2 Election Commissioners. Supported by Representation of People Act, 1951.
Q.12. West Bengal’s state animal is: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Fishing Cat
West Bengal’s state animal = Fishing Cat (adopted 2012). Vulnerable species (IUCN). Found in Sundarbans wetlands. State bird = White-throated Kingfisher; Flower = Night-flowering Jasmine (Shiuli); Tree = Chatim.
West Bengal’s state animal = Fishing Cat (adopted 2012). Vulnerable species (IUCN). Found in Sundarbans wetlands. State bird = White-throated Kingfisher; Flower = Night-flowering Jasmine (Shiuli); Tree = Chatim.
Q.13. The ‘G20 Summit 2023’ was hosted by: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) India
India hosted the G20 Summit 2023 in New Delhi (9–10 September). Theme: “One Earth, One Family, One Future” (Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam). African Union joined as permanent member. Key outcomes: Global Biofuels Alliance, IMEC corridor.
India hosted the G20 Summit 2023 in New Delhi (9–10 September). Theme: “One Earth, One Family, One Future” (Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam). African Union joined as permanent member. Key outcomes: Global Biofuels Alliance, IMEC corridor.
Q.14. The ‘Finance Commission’ is constituted every: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) 5 years
Finance Commission (Article 280) constituted by President every 5 years. Recommends distribution of tax revenues between Union and States. Current: 16th FC (2026–31), chaired by Arvind Panagariya.
Finance Commission (Article 280) constituted by President every 5 years. Recommends distribution of tax revenues between Union and States. Current: 16th FC (2026–31), chaired by Arvind Panagariya.
Q.15. The ‘Buxa Tiger Reserve’ is located in West Bengal and is famous for: West Bengal / Environment
Answer: (2) Royal Bengal Tiger
Buxa Tiger Reserve (Alipurduar, WB) established 1983 under Project Tiger. Famous for Royal Bengal Tiger. Also leopards, elephants, clouded leopards. Borders Bhutan, Assam, Jaldapara. 376 bird species.
Buxa Tiger Reserve (Alipurduar, WB) established 1983 under Project Tiger. Famous for Royal Bengal Tiger. Also leopards, elephants, clouded leopards. Borders Bhutan, Assam, Jaldapara. 376 bird species.
Q.16. ‘Make in India’ initiative was launched on: Current Affairs / Economy
Answer: (2) 25 September 2014
Make in India launched by PM Modi on 25 September 2014 to make India a global manufacturing hub. PLI schemes complement it. Focus: automobiles, aviation, defence, electronics, pharma, textiles. Aims for 25% manufacturing share of GDP.
Make in India launched by PM Modi on 25 September 2014 to make India a global manufacturing hub. PLI schemes complement it. Focus: automobiles, aviation, defence, electronics, pharma, textiles. Aims for 25% manufacturing share of GDP.
Q.17. The ‘SI unit of force’ is: Science
Answer: (2) Newton
Newton (N) = SI unit of force. 1 N = force producing 1 m/s² acceleration in 1 kg mass. Work/Energy = Joule; Power = Watt; Pressure = Pascal. 1 kg wt ≈ 9.8 N.
Newton (N) = SI unit of force. 1 N = force producing 1 m/s² acceleration in 1 kg mass. Work/Energy = Joule; Power = Watt; Pressure = Pascal. 1 kg wt ≈ 9.8 N.
Q.18. The ‘Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)’ is appointed by: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) President
CAG (Article 148) appointed by the President. Audits Union and State government accounts. Term = 6 years or age 65. “Guardian of Public Purse”. Reports to President/Parliament.
CAG (Article 148) appointed by the President. Audits Union and State government accounts. Term = 6 years or age 65. “Guardian of Public Purse”. Reports to President/Parliament.
Q.19. The ‘Durga Puja’ of Kolkata was declared UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage in: West Bengal / Culture
Answer: (2) 2021
Kolkata’s Durga Puja inscribed as UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage in December 2021. ~40,000 pujas annually. Economic impact: ₹32,000 crore (2023). Other WB UNESCO: Santiniketan (2023), Chhau dance (2010).
Kolkata’s Durga Puja inscribed as UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage in December 2021. ~40,000 pujas annually. Economic impact: ₹32,000 crore (2023). Other WB UNESCO: Santiniketan (2023), Chhau dance (2010).
Q.20. The ‘PM Vishwakarma Yojana’ launched in 2023 provides recognition and support to: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Traditional artisans and craftsmen
PM Vishwakarma Yojana launched 17 September 2023 provides ID cards, skill training, credit (up to ₹3 lakh), toolkit to 18 traditional crafts: carpenter, blacksmith, potter, barber, tailor, etc. ₹13,000 crore corpus over 5 years.
PM Vishwakarma Yojana launched 17 September 2023 provides ID cards, skill training, credit (up to ₹3 lakh), toolkit to 18 traditional crafts: carpenter, blacksmith, potter, barber, tailor, etc. ₹13,000 crore corpus over 5 years.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘QUINTESSENTIAL’:
Answer: (2) Perfectly typical example
Quintessential = representing the most perfect or typical example. Synonyms: Archetypal, Classic, Exemplary. Example: “She is the quintessential English lady.”
Quintessential = representing the most perfect or typical example. Synonyms: Archetypal, Classic, Exemplary. Example: “She is the quintessential English lady.”
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘PRODIGAL’:
Answer: (2) Thrifty / Economical
Prodigal = recklessly wasteful. Antonyms: Thrifty, Frugal, Sparing. “Prodigal son” (Bible) = wasteful son who returns repentant.
Prodigal = recklessly wasteful. Antonyms: Thrifty, Frugal, Sparing. “Prodigal son” (Bible) = wasteful son who returns repentant.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Millennium
Correct: Millennium — two ‘l’s, two ‘n’s: m-i-l-l-e-n-n-i-u-m. Latin “mille” (thousand) + “annus” (year). Common error: single ‘l’.
Correct: Millennium — two ‘l’s, two ‘n’s: m-i-l-l-e-n-n-i-u-m. Latin “mille” (thousand) + “annus” (year). Common error: single ‘l’.
Q.24. Fill in the blank: The manager congratulated the team ________ winning the championship.
Answer: (1) on
Correct collocation: “congratulate on” + gerund. “Congratulated the team on winning.” Compare: Insist on, Depend on, Accuse of.
Correct collocation: “congratulate on” + gerund. “Congratulated the team on winning.” Compare: Insist on, Depend on, Accuse of.
Q.25. Choose the correct plural of ‘Fungus’:
Answer: (2) Fungi
Fungus → Fungi (Latin plural: -us → -i). Similar: Cactus→Cacti, Alumnus→Alumni, Radius→Radii, Nucleus→Nuclei.
Fungus → Fungi (Latin plural: -us → -i). Similar: Cactus→Cacti, Alumnus→Alumni, Radius→Radii, Nucleus→Nuclei.
Q.26. Meaning of the idiom: “Bite the bullet”
Answer: (2) Do something difficult that cannot be avoided
“Bite the bullet” = endure something painful without showing distress. Origin: Civil War surgery — patients bit a bullet during operations without anaesthetic.
“Bite the bullet” = endure something painful without showing distress. Origin: Civil War surgery — patients bit a bullet during operations without anaesthetic.
Q.27. Choose the grammatically correct sentence:
Answer: (2) A large number of students have failed.
“A large number of + plural noun” → plural verb. Contrast: “The number of students has increased” (specific count → singular).
“A large number of + plural noun” → plural verb. Contrast: “The number of students has increased” (specific count → singular).
Q.28. Change to Passive Voice: “They will complete the project next week.”
Answer: (2) The project will be completed by them next week.
Future Simple Active → Passive: will be + V3. Object “project” → subject; “they” → “by them”.
Future Simple Active → Passive: will be + V3. Object “project” → subject; “they” → “by them”.
Q.29. One word substitution: Fear of heights:
Answer: (2) Acrophobia
Acrophobia = fear of heights. Claustrophobia = enclosed spaces; Hydrophobia = water; Agoraphobia = open spaces. Other: Arachnophobia (spiders), Xenophobia (foreigners).
Acrophobia = fear of heights. Claustrophobia = enclosed spaces; Hydrophobia = water; Agoraphobia = open spaces. Other: Arachnophobia (spiders), Xenophobia (foreigners).
Q.30. Spot the error: “The police (A) / has arrested (B) / the culprits yesterday. (C) / No error (D)”
Answer: (2) B — “has” should be “have”
“Police” is a plural collective noun → plural verb “have”. “The police have arrested…” Indian exam standard: police, cattle, people → plural verb.
“Police” is a plural collective noun → plural verb “have”. “The police have arrested…” Indian exam standard: police, cattle, people → plural verb.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Find the odd one out: Rose, Jasmine, Lotus, Sunflower
Answer: (2) Lotus
Rose, Jasmine, Sunflower are land (terrestrial) flowers. Lotus is an aquatic flower — it grows in water/mud. Lotus opens during the day and closes at night.
Rose, Jasmine, Sunflower are land (terrestrial) flowers. Lotus is an aquatic flower — it grows in water/mud. Lotus opens during the day and closes at night.
Q.32. Complete the series: 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ___
Answer: (2) 127
Pattern: each term = (previous × 2) + 1. 3×2+1=7; 7×2+1=15; 15×2+1=31; 31×2+1=63; 63×2+1=127.
Pattern: each term = (previous × 2) + 1. 3×2+1=7; 7×2+1=15; 15×2+1=31; 31×2+1=63; 63×2+1=127.
Q.33. In a code, ‘DELHI’ is written as ‘EFMIJ’. How is ‘KOLKATA’ written?
Answer: (1) LPMLBUB
Pattern +1 to each letter: D→E, E→F, L→M, H→I, I→J. Apply to KOLKATA: K→L, O→P, L→M, K→L, A→B, T→U, A→B = LPMLBUB.
Pattern +1 to each letter: D→E, E→F, L→M, H→I, I→J. Apply to KOLKATA: K→L, O→P, L→M, K→L, A→B, T→U, A→B = LPMLBUB.
Q.34. Complete the letter series: D, H, O, U, ___
Answer: (1) Z
Positions: D(4), H(8), O(15), U(21). Differences: +4, +7, +6. Next difference pattern → +5: 21+5=26 = Z.
Positions: D(4), H(8), O(15), U(21). Differences: +4, +7, +6. Next difference pattern → +5: 21+5=26 = Z.
Q.35. A is father of B, B is mother of C, and C is sister of D. How is A related to D?
Answer: (2) Grandfather
A→B (father), B→C (mother), C sister of D → C and D both children of B. Therefore A is grandfather of D.
A→B (father), B→C (mother), C sister of D → C and D both children of B. Therefore A is grandfather of D.
Q.36. In a row, Rina is 12th from the left and 17th from the right. How many students are in the row?
Answer: (2) 28
Total = 12 + 17 − 1 = 28.
Total = 12 + 17 − 1 = 28.
Q.37. A person walks 8 km North, then 6 km East. How far is he from starting point?
Answer: (1) 10 km
Pythagorean theorem: √(8² + 6²) = √(64+36) = √100 = 10 km. Classic 6-8-10 triple.
Pythagorean theorem: √(8² + 6²) = √(64+36) = √100 = 10 km. Classic 6-8-10 triple.
Q.38. Today is Tuesday. What day will it be 60 days from now?
Answer: (3) Saturday
60 ÷ 7 = 8 weeks + 4 days remainder. Add 4 days to Tuesday: Wed(+1), Thu(+2), Fri(+3), Sat(+4). Answer = Saturday.
60 ÷ 7 = 8 weeks + 4 days remainder. Add 4 days to Tuesday: Wed(+1), Thu(+2), Fri(+3), Sat(+4). Answer = Saturday.
Q.39. Find missing term: 2, 6, 14, 30, 62, ___
Answer: (2) 126
Pattern: ×2 +2: 2×2+2=6; 6×2+2=14; 14×2+2=30; 30×2+2=62; 62×2+2=126.
Pattern: ×2 +2: 2×2+2=6; 6×2+2=14; 14×2+2=30; 30×2+2=62; 62×2+2=126.
Q.40. Statements: All pens are pencils. Some pencils are erasers.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are erasers. II. Some erasers are pencils.
Conclusions: I. Some pens are erasers. II. Some erasers are pencils.
Answer: (2) Only II follows
Pens ⊆ Pencils; Some Pencils ⊆ Erasers. I: pen-eraser overlap not guaranteed. II: “Some pencils are erasers” → “Some erasers are pencils” (valid conversion). Only II follows.
Pens ⊆ Pencils; Some Pencils ⊆ Erasers. I: pen-eraser overlap not guaranteed. II: “Some pencils are erasers” → “Some erasers are pencils” (valid conversion). Only II follows.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Find the least number which, when divided by 8, 12, and 15, leaves remainder 5 in each case.
Answer: (1) 125
LCM(8,12,15): 8=2³, 12=2²×3, 15=3×5 → LCM = 2³×3×5 = 120. Required number = 120 + 5 = 125. Verify: 125÷8=15 r5 ✓; 125÷12=10 r5 ✓; 125÷15=8 r5 ✓.
LCM(8,12,15): 8=2³, 12=2²×3, 15=3×5 → LCM = 2³×3×5 = 120. Required number = 120 + 5 = 125. Verify: 125÷8=15 r5 ✓; 125÷12=10 r5 ✓; 125÷15=8 r5 ✓.
Q.42. Simplify: 18 + 3 × (12 ÷ 4) − 5
Answer: (2) 22
Bracket: 12÷4=3. Then 3×3=9. 18+9−5 = 22.
Bracket: 12÷4=3. Then 3×3=9. 18+9−5 = 22.
Q.43. A can do a work in 10 days, B in 20 days. Working together, in how many days will they finish?
Answer: (2) 6.67 days
A=1/10; B=1/20. Together = 3/20. Time = 20/3 ≈ 6.67 days.
A=1/10; B=1/20. Together = 3/20. Time = 20/3 ≈ 6.67 days.
Q.44. A train travels at 72 km/h. How much time will it take to cover 540 km?
Answer: (2) 7.5 hours
Time = 540 ÷ 72 = 7.5 hours (7 hours 30 min).
Time = 540 ÷ 72 = 7.5 hours (7 hours 30 min).
Q.45. The ratio of boys and girls in a class is 7:5. If there are 60 students in total, how many girls?
Answer: (1) 25
Total parts = 7+5=12. 1 part = 60÷12=5. Girls = 5×5 = 25. Boys = 7×5 = 35.
Total parts = 7+5=12. 1 part = 60÷12=5. Girls = 5×5 = 25. Boys = 7×5 = 35.
Q.46. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 24. Find the largest number.
Answer: (2) 28
For 5 consecutive even numbers, middle = average = 24. Numbers: 20, 22, 24, 26, 28. Largest = 28.
For 5 consecutive even numbers, middle = average = 24. Numbers: 20, 22, 24, 26, 28. Largest = 28.
Q.47. A man bought a TV for ₹27,000 and sold it for ₹31,050. Find his profit percentage.
Answer: (2) 15%
Profit = 31050−27000 = ₹4050. Profit% = 4050÷27000×100 = 15%.
Profit = 31050−27000 = ₹4050. Profit% = 4050÷27000×100 = 15%.
Q.48. Find the simple interest on ₹12,000 at 9% per annum for 4 years.
Answer: (2) ₹4,320
SI = PRT/100 = 12000×9×4÷100 = ₹4,320. Amount = ₹16,320.
SI = PRT/100 = 12000×9×4÷100 = ₹4,320. Amount = ₹16,320.
Q.49. A sum amounts to ₹6,500 in 3 years at 10% simple interest. Find the principal.
Answer: (1) ₹5,000
A = P(1 + RT/100) = P(1 + 0.10×3) = 1.3P. 1.3P = 6500 → P = 6500÷1.3 = ₹5,000. SI = ₹1,500.
A = P(1 + RT/100) = P(1 + 0.10×3) = 1.3P. 1.3P = 6500 → P = 6500÷1.3 = ₹5,000. SI = ₹1,500.
Q.50. The perimeter of a rectangle is 80 cm and its breadth is 15 cm. Find its area.
Answer: (1) 375 cm²
2(l+b) = 80 → l+b = 40 → l = 40−15 = 25 cm. Area = l×b = 25×15 = 375 cm².
2(l+b) = 80 → l+b = 40 → l = 40−15 = 25 cm. Area = l×b = 25×15 = 375 cm².
Q.51. Speed of a car is 54 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 25 minutes?
Answer: (2) 22.5 km
Distance = 54×(25/60) = 54×5/12 = 270/12 = 22.5 km.
Distance = 54×(25/60) = 54×5/12 = 270/12 = 22.5 km.
Q.52. The sum of two numbers is 84 and their product is 1,728. Find the numbers.
Answer: (2) 36 and 48
36+48=84 ✓; 36×48=1,728 ✓. Verify options: 40×44=1760✗; 32×52=1664✗; 30×54=1620✗.
36+48=84 ✓; 36×48=1,728 ✓. Verify options: 40×44=1760✗; 32×52=1664✗; 30×54=1620✗.
Q.53. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 min and 18 min respectively. If both opened together, time to fill?
Answer: (1) 7.2 min
A=1/12, B=1/18. Together = (3+2)/36 = 5/36. Time = 36/5 = 7.2 minutes.
A=1/12, B=1/18. Together = (3+2)/36 = 5/36. Time = 36/5 = 7.2 minutes.
Q.54. The area of a circle is 154 cm². Find its radius. (π = 22/7)
Answer: (2) 7 cm
πr² = 154 → (22/7)r² = 154 → r² = 154×7/22 = 49 → r = 7 cm.
πr² = 154 → (22/7)r² = 154 → r² = 154×7/22 = 49 → r = 7 cm.
Q.55. The perimeter of a square is 96 cm. Find its diagonal.
Answer: (1) 24√2 cm
4a = 96 → a = 24. Diagonal = a√2 = 24√2 cm.
4a = 96 → a = 24. Diagonal = a√2 = 24√2 cm.
Q.56. If 8 men can complete a work in 15 days, in how many days will 12 men complete it?
Answer: (2) 10 days
8×15 = 12×x → 120 = 12x → x = 10 days.
8×15 = 12×x → 120 = 12x → x = 10 days.
Q.57. A trader marks goods 25% above cost price and allows 20% discount. Find profit or loss %.
Answer: (2) No profit no loss
Let CP=100. MP=125. SP after 20% discount = 125×0.8 = 100 = CP. So SP = CP → no profit no loss. Formula: (1+m)(1−d) = (1.25)(0.80) = 1.00.
Let CP=100. MP=125. SP after 20% discount = 125×0.8 = 100 = CP. So SP = CP → no profit no loss. Formula: (1+m)(1−d) = (1.25)(0.80) = 1.00.
Q.58. A number is exactly divisible by 9 if:
Answer: (2) Sum of digits divisible by 9
Divisibility rule for 9: sum of all digits must be divisible by 9. Example: 2+7+0=9 → 270÷9=30 ✓. For 3: sum of digits divisible by 3.
Divisibility rule for 9: sum of all digits must be divisible by 9. Example: 2+7+0=9 → 270÷9=30 ✓. For 3: sum of digits divisible by 3.
Q.59. The total surface area of a cylinder is 704 cm². If its radius is 8 cm, find its height. (π = 22/7)
Answer: (1) 6 cm
TSA = 2πr(r+h) = 704. 2×(22/7)×8×(8+h) = 704 → (352/7)×(8+h) = 704 → 8+h = 704×7/352 = 14 → h = 14−8 = 6 cm. Verify: 2×(22/7)×8×14 = (352/7)×14 = 704 ✓.
TSA = 2πr(r+h) = 704. 2×(22/7)×8×(8+h) = 704 → (352/7)×(8+h) = 704 → 8+h = 704×7/352 = 14 → h = 14−8 = 6 cm. Verify: 2×(22/7)×8×14 = (352/7)×14 = 704 ✓.
Q.60. The volume of a cuboid is 1,344 cm³. If its length is 14 cm, breadth 8 cm, find its height.
Answer: (2) 12 cm
V = l×b×h → 1344 = 14×8×h = 112h → h = 1344÷112 = 12 cm.
V = l×b×h → 1344 = 14×8×h = 112h → h = 1344÷112 = 12 cm.