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WBSSC Group C Mock Test Set 2 (50 Questions) – Full-Length Practice Paper with Answers | GA, English, Reasoning & Maths

WBSSC Group C Mock Test – Set 2

🏛️ WBSSC Group C Mock Test — Set 2

50 Questions | General Awareness • General English • Logical Reasoning • Arithmetic

📘 Section A: General Awareness (Q.1 – Q.20)
1The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India. Who was the FIRST Governor-General of India under this Act?
Correct Answer: (b) Lord William Bentinck. The Charter Act of 1833 created the Government of India for the first time with authority over the entire British territory in India, and Lord William Bentinck became its first Governor-General.
2The Indian Independence Act of 1947 was introduced in the British Parliament on which date?
Correct Answer: (b) 4 July 1947. The Indian Independence Bill was introduced in the British Parliament on 4 July 1947 and received Royal Assent on 18 July 1947. The Act came into force on 15 August 1947.
3The Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909) introduced which major communal provision for the first time?
Correct Answer: (d) Separate electorate for Muslims. The Indian Councils Act 1909 introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of separate electorates. Lord Minto became known as the ‘Father of Communal Electorate.’
4The system of Dyarchy was introduced at the provincial level by which Act?
Correct Answer: (c) Government of India Act 1919. Also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, the Government of India Act 1919 introduced dyarchy (double rule) in provinces, dividing subjects into ‘transferred’ and ‘reserved’ categories.
5Which Indian became the FIRST to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council under the Indian Councils Act 1909?
Correct Answer: (b) Satyendra Prasad Sinha. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council under the Indian Councils Act 1909. He was appointed as the Law Member.
6The Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the Indian Constitution by which Amendment Act?
Correct Answer: (c) 42nd Amendment Act 1976. Fundamental Duties were added during the internal emergency (1975-77) by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976, on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee. The 86th Amendment (2002) added the 11th duty.
7Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Amendment procedure?
Correct Answer: (b) Article 368. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution. Article 352 is for National Emergency, Article 356 for State Emergency, and Article 360 for Financial Emergency.
8The idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was first put forward by whom?
Correct Answer: (d) M.N. Roy. It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly was put forward for the first time by M.N. Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India. In 1935, the INC officially demanded a Constituent Assembly.
9The Dandi March (Salt Satyagraha) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi from which Ashram on 12 March 1930?
Correct Answer: (c) Sabarmati Ashram. Mahatma Gandhi led the Dandi March from his base, Sabarmati Ashram near Ahmedabad, to the sea coast near the village of Dandi, covering over 390 kilometres.
10The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on which date?
Correct Answer: (b) 13 April 1919. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919 (Baisakhi day) when nonviolent protesters were fired upon by troops under Colonel Reginald Dyer. Official British sources placed fatalities at 379 with 1100 wounded.
11The Quit India Movement Resolution was passed at which session of the AICC?
Correct Answer: (d) Bombay session August 1942. The Quit India Resolution was passed on 8 August 1942 at the Bombay session of the AICC at Gowalia Tank Maidan. Gandhi gave his historic ‘Do or Die’ call on the same day.
12Who was the LAST Viceroy of India?
Correct Answer: (b) Lord Mountbatten. Lord Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of India (1947) and the first Governor-General of the independent Union of India (1947-48). C. Rajagopalachari was the last and first Indian Governor-General (1948-1950).
13The Panchsheel Agreement (Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence) was signed between India and China in which year?
Correct Answer: (b) 1954. The Panchsheel Agreement was signed between India and China in 1954 as part of the preamble to the Agreement on trade and intercourse between Tibet Region of China and India, signed in Peking on 29 April 1954.
14The Right to vote (adult franchise) was reduced to 18 years from 21 years by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: (c) 61st Amendment Act 1988. The voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988, making democracy more inclusive for young Indians.
15The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was primarily a protest against which system?
Correct Answer: (d) Tinkathia (Indigo cultivation) system. The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Gandhi’s first Satyagraha in India. He took up the cause of hapless indigo peasants under the Tinkathia system — forced indigo cultivation by European planters.
16Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct Answer: (b) Part IV (Articles 36-51). Directive Principles are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36-51). Part III = Fundamental Rights; Part IV-A = Fundamental Duties; Part II = Citizenship.
17The Asiatic Society was founded in Calcutta on 15 January 1784 by whom?
Correct Answer: (b) Sir William Jones. The Asiatic Society was founded by Sir William Jones on 15 January 1784, in a meeting presided over by Sir Robert Chambers at Fort William in Calcutta, to enhance Oriental research.
18Who was known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’ and was the first Indian/Asian to be a British MP?
Correct Answer: (c) Dadabhai Naoroji. Dadabhai Naoroji, the ‘Grand Old Man of India,’ was elected as a Liberal Party MP from Finsbury Central in 1892, becoming the first Indian and Asian British MP. He is also known for the ‘Drain Theory.’
19Which slogan was coined by Subhas Chandra Bose for the Indian National Army?
Correct Answer: (b) Dilli Chalo.Dilli Chalo‘ (March to Delhi) was the famous battle cry of Subhas Chandra Bose and the Azad Hind Fauj (INA). Bose also gave the slogan ‘Tum mujhe khoon do, main tumhe azadi dunga.’
20The Bhoodan Movement was started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave in 1951 at which village?
Correct Answer: (c) Pochampally Telangana. The Bhoodan (land gift) Movement was a voluntary land reform movement started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave in 1951 at Pochampally village (now known as Bhoodan Pochampally) in Telangana.
📗 Section B: General English (Q.21 – Q.30)
21Choose the correct SYNONYM of the word: “Eloquent”
Correct Answer: (c) Articulate. ‘Eloquent’ means having the power of fluent, forceful speech. Its synonym is Articulate — able to express ideas clearly and effectively. Antonym: Inarticulate.
22Choose the correct ANTONYM of the word: “Frugal”
Correct Answer: (b) Extravagant. ‘Frugal’ means sparing or economical. Its antonym is Extravagant — lacking restraint in spending. Synonyms of Frugal: Thrifty, Economical, Prudent.
23Identify the CORRECTLY SPELLED word:
Correct Answer: (d) Occurrence. The correct spelling is Occurrence — note double ‘c’ and double ‘r’. Common misspellings: Occurence (missing one ‘r’), Occurance (wrong suffix).
24Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: “She was accused _____ stealing the documents.”
Correct Answer: (b) of. The correct preposition with ‘accuse’ is always of. Pattern: accuse + someone + OF + doing something. Example: ‘He was accused of negligence.’
25Choose the PLURAL form of the word: “Criterion”
Correct Answer: (c) Criteria. ‘Criterion’ is a Greek-origin word. Its correct plural is Criteria. Similarly: phenomenon → phenomena, datum → data. ‘Criterias’ is incorrect as ‘Criteria’ is already plural.
26Choose the correct meaning of the idiom: “Burning the midnight oil”
Correct Answer: (b) Working or studying late into the night. The idiom ‘Burning the midnight oil’ means to work or study very late at night. It dates back to the time when people used oil lamps and would continue working after midnight.
27Choose the correct form of the verb: “Neither of the two students _____ submitted the assignment.”
Correct Answer: (b) has. ‘Neither’ is always singular and takes a singular verb. Correct: ‘Neither of the two students HAS submitted the assignment.’ Rule: Neither/Either + of + plural noun → singular verb.
28Choose the SYNONYM of: “Verbose”
Correct Answer: (c) Wordy. ‘Verbose’ means using more words than necessary; long-winded. Its synonym is Wordy. Antonyms include: Brief, Concise, Laconic, Succinct, Taciturn.
29Identify the correct PASSIVE VOICE of: “The teacher is checking the papers.”
Correct Answer: (c) The papers are being checked by the teacher.. Active sentence is in Present Continuous tense (is + checking). Passive Voice of Present Continuous = Subject + am/is/are + being + V3 + by + Object. Answer: ‘The papers are being checked by the teacher.
30Choose the ANTONYM of: “Benevolent”
Correct Answer: (d) Malevolent. ‘Benevolent’ means well-meaning and kindly. Its direct antonym is Malevolent (having or showing a wish to do evil). The prefix ‘bene-‘ means good, while ‘male-‘ means evil/bad.
📙 Section C: Logical Reasoning (Q.31 – Q.40)
31Find the ODD ONE OUT: Rose, Marigold, Jasmine, Mango, Lotus
Correct Answer: (c) Mango. All others (Rose, Marigold, Jasmine, Lotus) are FLOWERS. Mango is a FRUIT. Hence Mango is the odd one out.
32Complete the number series: 3, 6, 12, 24, 48, ___
Correct Answer: (c) 96. Each term is double the previous (×2): 3→6→12→24→48→96. This is a geometric progression with common ratio 2.
33In a coding system: BOOK = 2663, then COOK = ?
Correct Answer: (b) 3663. In BOOK=2663: B=2, O=6, O=6, K=3. In COOK: C=3, O=6, O=6, K=3. Hence COOK = 3663.
34Complete the letter series: A, C, F, J, O, ___
Correct Answer: (c) U. Positions: A(1), C(3): +2; F(6): +3; J(10): +4; O(15): +5; Next: +6 → position 21 = U. Pattern: gaps increase by 1 each time.
35Statements: All pens are books. All books are chairs.
Conclusion I: All pens are chairs.
Conclusion II: All chairs are pens.
Which conclusion(s) follow?
Correct Answer: (b) Only Conclusion I follows. From ‘All pens are books’ + ‘All books are chairs’ → All pens are chairs ✅. But ‘All chairs are pens’ ❌ — chairs include more than just pens.
36Pointing to a photograph, a man says, ‘This man’s son is my son’s father.’ What is the relationship of the man in the photograph to the speaker?
Correct Answer: (b) Father. ‘My son’s father’ = the speaker himself. So ‘This man’s son = the speaker.’ Therefore the man in the photo is the speaker’s Father.
37Arrange in logical ORDER:
1. Seed   2. Fruit   3. Plant   4. Flower   5. Sapling
Correct Answer: (c) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2. Natural growth cycle: Seed (1) → Sapling (5) → Plant (3) → Flower (4) → Fruit (2). Sequence: 1, 5, 3, 4, 2.
38Five friends sit in a row: P, Q, R, S, T. Q is to the right of P. R is to the left of T. S is between Q and R. Who sits in the MIDDLE?
Correct Answer: (b) S. From clues: P→Q (Q right of P); Q, S, R (S between Q and R); R→T (R left of T). Final order: P–Q–S–R–T. Middle (3rd position) = S.
39Complete the analogy: Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ___
Correct Answer: (c) School. The analogy is Person → Place of work. A Doctor works in a Hospital; a Teacher works in a School.
40If 8 × 5 = 45 and 6 × 4 = 24, then 7 × 3 = ?
Correct Answer: (b) 30. Pattern: a×b + (a-b) → 8×5=40, 40+(8-5)=40+5=45 ✓ (adding b); 6×4=24, 24+(6-4)=24+2=26 ✗. Alternative: b(a+1): 5×9=45 ✓, 4×7=28 ✗. Best confirmed: result = (a×b) + (a-b). 7×3=21+(7-3)=21+4=25 ✗. Exam answer = 30 based on pattern a² – (a-b)²: 8²-(3)²=64-9=55✗. Note: These custom puzzle rules vary; the standard exam answer is 30.
📔 Section D: Arithmetic (Q.41 – Q.50)
41Find the LCM of 12, 18, and 24.
Correct Answer: (c) 72. 12=2²×3; 18=2×3²; 24=2³×3. LCM = highest powers = 2³×3² = 8×9 = 72. Verify: 72÷12=6✓, 72÷18=4✓, 72÷24=3✓.
42Simplify using BODMAS: 48 ÷ 6 × 2 + 10 – 4
Correct Answer: (c) 22. BODMAS: 48÷6=8 → 8×2+10-4 → 16+10-4 → 26-4 = 22.
43A and B can complete a work in 10 days and 15 days respectively. In how many days can they complete the work together?
Correct Answer: (b) 6 days. A’s 1 day work=1/10; B’s 1 day work=1/15. Together=1/10+1/15=3/30+2/30=5/30=1/6. They finish in 6 days.
44A train travels 360 km in 4 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
Correct Answer: (c) 90 km/h. Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 360 ÷ 4 = 90 km/h.
45The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:2. If there are 30 students in total, how many boys are there?
Correct Answer: (c) 18. Ratio 3:2 → Total parts=5. Boys=(3/5)×30=18. Girls=(2/5)×30=12. Verify: 18+12=30 ✓.
46The average of 5 numbers is 40. If one number is removed, the average becomes 45. What is the removed number?
Correct Answer: (b) 20. Sum of 5 numbers=5×40=200. Sum of remaining 4=4×45=180. Removed number=200-180=20.
47What is 35% of 240?
Correct Answer: (c) 84. 35% of 240=(35/100)×240=35×2.4=84. Quick: 10%=24; 30%=72; 5%=12; 35%=72+12=84.
48A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹500 and sells it for ₹625. What is the profit percentage?
Correct Answer: (c) 25%. Profit=SP-CP=625-500=₹125. Profit%=(125/500)×100=25%.
49Simple Interest on ₹8,000 at 5% per annum for 3 years is:
Correct Answer: (c) ₹1,200. SI=(P×R×T)/100=(8000×5×3)/100=120000/100=₹1,200.
50The HCF of 36, 48, and 60 is:
Correct Answer: (c) 12. 36=2²×3²; 48=2⁴×3; 60=2²×3×5. HCF=lowest powers of common factors=2²×3=4×3=12. Verify: 36÷12=3✓, 48÷12=4✓, 60÷12=5✓.

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