📋 MOCK TEST – SET 18
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click any option to see answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. NEP 2020 proposes ‘Holistic Progress Card’ to assess students based on: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 360-degree multidimensional report
The Holistic Progress Card (HPC) replaces mark sheets with a 360-degree multidimensional report assessing cognitive skills, socio-emotional qualities, health, physical education, and co-curriculars. Developed by PARAKH. Aims to reduce stress, promote holistic development. Piloted in CBSE schools (2023–24).
The Holistic Progress Card (HPC) replaces mark sheets with a 360-degree multidimensional report assessing cognitive skills, socio-emotional qualities, health, physical education, and co-curriculars. Developed by PARAKH. Aims to reduce stress, promote holistic development. Piloted in CBSE schools (2023–24).
Q.2. NEP 2020 recommends that the ‘minimum degree qualification’ for teaching will be: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 4-year integrated B.Ed. by 2030
NEP 2020 mandates 4-year integrated B.Ed. as minimum teaching qualification by 2030, replacing standalone B.Ed. Includes multidisciplinary study + professional education. NCTE standards ensure quality. 2-year B.Ed. as interim.
NEP 2020 mandates 4-year integrated B.Ed. as minimum teaching qualification by 2030, replacing standalone B.Ed. Includes multidisciplinary study + professional education. NCTE standards ensure quality. 2-year B.Ed. as interim.
Q.3. NEP 2020 aims to achieve 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by: NEP 2020
Answer: (1) 2030
NEP 2020 targets 100% GER in school education by 2030. NIPUN Bharat targets foundational literacy/numeracy by 2026–27. Higher education GER target: 50% by 2035.
NEP 2020 targets 100% GER in school education by 2030. NIPUN Bharat targets foundational literacy/numeracy by 2026–27. Higher education GER target: 50% by 2035.
Q.4. The ‘Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)’ proposed in NEP 2020 will have four verticals. Which one is responsible for regulation? NEP 2020
Answer: (1) NHERC
HECI has 4 verticals: NHERC (regulation of all HEIs except medical/legal), NAC (accreditation), HEPC (funding/promotion), GEC (academic standards). Single regulator replacing UGC, AICTE. Light but tight regulation through RIMS self-disclosure.
HECI has 4 verticals: NHERC (regulation of all HEIs except medical/legal), NAC (accreditation), HEPC (funding/promotion), GEC (academic standards). Single regulator replacing UGC, AICTE. Light but tight regulation through RIMS self-disclosure.
Q.5. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
Article 368 = procedure and power of Parliament to amend the Constitution. Needs special majority (2/3rd present and voting + majority of total). Some amendments need state ratification. Basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973) limits Parliament. Total amendments till 2025: 106.
Article 368 = procedure and power of Parliament to amend the Constitution. Needs special majority (2/3rd present and voting + majority of total). Some amendments need state ratification. Basic structure doctrine (Kesavananda Bharati, 1973) limits Parliament. Total amendments till 2025: 106.
Q.6. The ‘Champaran Satyagraha’ (1917) was India’s first successful civil disobedience movement led by: Indian History
Answer: (2) Mahatma Gandhi
Champaran Satyagraha (April 1917) — Gandhi’s first civil disobedience in India against the tinkathia system (forced indigo cultivation). Gandhi defied British ban at Motihari, investigated peasant grievances. British abolished the system. Raj Kumar Shukla invited Gandhi.
Champaran Satyagraha (April 1917) — Gandhi’s first civil disobedience in India against the tinkathia system (forced indigo cultivation). Gandhi defied British ban at Motihari, investigated peasant grievances. British abolished the system. Raj Kumar Shukla invited Gandhi.
Q.7. The ‘Bagdogra Airport’ serves which district of West Bengal? West Bengal / Geography
Answer: (1) Darjeeling
Bagdogra Airport (IXB) is in Darjeeling district, West Bengal. Serves Siliguri, Darjeeling hills, Sikkim, and Northeast. International airport since 2015. ~40 lakh passengers annually.
Bagdogra Airport (IXB) is in Darjeeling district, West Bengal. Serves Siliguri, Darjeeling hills, Sikkim, and Northeast. International airport since 2015. ~40 lakh passengers annually.
Q.8. Which blood cells are responsible for fighting infections? Science / Biology
Answer: (2) White Blood Cells (WBCs)
WBCs (Leucocytes) fight infections. Types: Neutrophils (bacteria), Lymphocytes (viruses), Monocytes (chronic infections), Eosinophils (allergies). RBCs carry oxygen; Platelets = clotting; Plasma = liquid matrix. Normal WBC: 4,000–11,000/μL.
WBCs (Leucocytes) fight infections. Types: Neutrophils (bacteria), Lymphocytes (viruses), Monocytes (chronic infections), Eosinophils (allergies). RBCs carry oxygen; Platelets = clotting; Plasma = liquid matrix. Normal WBC: 4,000–11,000/μL.
Q.9. The ‘Battle of Buxar’ (1764) paved the way for British dominance in India by defeating: Indian History
Answer: (2) Combined forces of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah, and Shah Alam II
Battle of Buxar (22 October 1764) — British defeated alliance of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah, Shah Alam II. Led to Treaty of Allahabad (1765): Company got Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa. “Plassey opened the door; Buxar locked it for British rule.”
Battle of Buxar (22 October 1764) — British defeated alliance of Mir Qasim, Shuja-ud-Daulah, Shah Alam II. Led to Treaty of Allahabad (1765): Company got Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa. “Plassey opened the door; Buxar locked it for British rule.”
Q.10. The ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’ was implemented in India on: Economy / Current Affairs
Answer: (2) 1 July 2017
GST implemented 1 July 2017 — “One Nation, One Tax.” Replaced 17 indirect taxes. 101st Amendment (2016). Rates: 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%. Types: CGST, SGST, IGST, UTGST.
GST implemented 1 July 2017 — “One Nation, One Tax.” Replaced 17 indirect taxes. 101st Amendment (2016). Rates: 0%, 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%. Types: CGST, SGST, IGST, UTGST.
Q.11. The ‘Rajya Sabha’ has a maximum strength of: Indian Polity
Answer: (1) 250 members (maximum)
Rajya Sabha max = 250 (238 elected + 12 nominated by President). Current strength = 245. Permanent House (never dissolved); 1/3 retire every 2 years; 6-year term. Chairman = Vice-President. Lok Sabha max = 552.
Rajya Sabha max = 250 (238 elected + 12 nominated by President). Current strength = 245. Permanent House (never dissolved); 1/3 retire every 2 years; 6-year term. Chairman = Vice-President. Lok Sabha max = 552.
Q.12. West Bengal is the largest producer of which crop in India? West Bengal / Agriculture
Answer: (2) Jute
West Bengal = largest jute producer (~70% of India’s output). “Golden Fibre.” Districts: Murshidabad, Nadia, Birbhum, Hooghly. India+Bangladesh = 95% world production. WB also called the Jute State.
West Bengal = largest jute producer (~70% of India’s output). “Golden Fibre.” Districts: Murshidabad, Nadia, Birbhum, Hooghly. India+Bangladesh = 95% world production. WB also called the Jute State.
Q.13. The ‘Nobel Prize in Literature’ 2024 was awarded to: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Han Kang
Han Kang (South Korea) won 2024 Nobel Literature Prize “for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas.” First South Korean and first Asian woman to win. Rabindranath Tagore = Literature Nobel 1913.
Han Kang (South Korea) won 2024 Nobel Literature Prize “for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical traumas.” First South Korean and first Asian woman to win. Rabindranath Tagore = Literature Nobel 1913.
Q.14. The ‘Panchayati Raj’ system was introduced by which amendment? Indian Polity
Answer: (2) 73rd Amendment
73rd Amendment, 1992 (effective 24 April 1993) constitutionalised Panchayati Raj — Part IX, Articles 243–243O, 11th Schedule (29 subjects). Three-tier system. 33% seats reserved for women. 74th = Urban Local Bodies.
73rd Amendment, 1992 (effective 24 April 1993) constitutionalised Panchayati Raj — Part IX, Articles 243–243O, 11th Schedule (29 subjects). Three-tier system. 33% seats reserved for women. 74th = Urban Local Bodies.
Q.15. The ‘Teesta Barrage Project’ in West Bengal is located in: West Bengal / Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Jalpaiguri district
Teesta Barrage at Gazaldoba, Jalpaiguri district (1996). Irrigates 9 lakh hectares, generates 120 MW hydropower. Part of Teesta water-sharing dispute with Bangladesh.
Teesta Barrage at Gazaldoba, Jalpaiguri district (1996). Irrigates 9 lakh hectares, generates 120 MW hydropower. Part of Teesta water-sharing dispute with Bangladesh.
Q.16. The ‘Digital India’ programme was launched in: Current Affairs / Technology
Answer: (2) 2015
Digital India launched 1 July 2015. 9 pillars including Broadband Highways, e-Governance, e-Kranti. Key: UPI, BHIM, DigiLocker, Aadhaar. India ~90 crore internet users (2025).
Digital India launched 1 July 2015. 9 pillars including Broadband Highways, e-Governance, e-Kranti. Key: UPI, BHIM, DigiLocker, Aadhaar. India ~90 crore internet users (2025).
Q.17. The chemical name of Vitamin C is: Science
Answer: (1) Ascorbic acid
Vitamin C = Ascorbic acid. Deficiency → Scurvy. Sources: Amla, guava, lemon, orange. Vitamin A = Retinol; B1 = Thiamine; D = Calciferol; K = Phylloquinone. Water-soluble: B-complex, C; Fat-soluble: A, D, E, K.
Vitamin C = Ascorbic acid. Deficiency → Scurvy. Sources: Amla, guava, lemon, orange. Vitamin A = Retinol; B1 = Thiamine; D = Calciferol; K = Phylloquinone. Water-soluble: B-complex, C; Fat-soluble: A, D, E, K.
Q.18. The ‘Inter-State Council’ was established based on the recommendation of: Indian Polity
Answer: (1) Sarkaria Commission
Inter-State Council (Article 263) established 1990 on Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommendations on Centre-State relations. Chaired by PM; includes CMs, Governors, Union Ministers. Punchhi Commission (2010) further recommended its strengthening.
Inter-State Council (Article 263) established 1990 on Sarkaria Commission (1988) recommendations on Centre-State relations. Chaired by PM; includes CMs, Governors, Union Ministers. Punchhi Commission (2010) further recommended its strengthening.
Q.19. The ‘Howrah Bridge’ (Rabindra Setu) is located in West Bengal and spans across: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Hooghly river
Howrah Bridge (Rabindra Setu, 1943) spans the Hooghly River. Cantilever bridge — no nuts/bolts, all riveted. 3 lakh vehicles + 1 lakh pedestrians daily. One of the world’s busiest bridges.
Howrah Bridge (Rabindra Setu, 1943) spans the Hooghly River. Cantilever bridge — no nuts/bolts, all riveted. 3 lakh vehicles + 1 lakh pedestrians daily. One of the world’s busiest bridges.
Q.20. The ‘Ayushman Bharat’ scheme provides health insurance cover of up to ₹___ per family per year.
Answer: (2) ₹5 lakh
Ayushman Bharat — PMJAY (2018) = ₹5 lakh/family/year for ~50 crore beneficiaries. World’s largest government health insurance. Covers 1,949 procedures. ~50 crore Ayushman cards issued (2025).
Ayushman Bharat — PMJAY (2018) = ₹5 lakh/family/year for ~50 crore beneficiaries. World’s largest government health insurance. Covers 1,949 procedures. ~50 crore Ayushman cards issued (2025).
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘LACONIC’:
Answer: (2) Using few words; concise
Laconic = using very few words; concise. Synonyms: Concise, Terse, Succinct, Pithy. Antonyms: Verbose, Loquacious. Example: “His laconic reply surprised everyone.”
Laconic = using very few words; concise. Synonyms: Concise, Terse, Succinct, Pithy. Antonyms: Verbose, Loquacious. Example: “His laconic reply surprised everyone.”
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘OBLIVIOUS’:
Answer: (2) Aware / Attentive
Oblivious = unaware, forgetful. Antonyms: Aware, Attentive, Conscious, Mindful. Example: “She was oblivious to the danger.” Often: “oblivious of/to”.
Oblivious = unaware, forgetful. Antonyms: Aware, Attentive, Conscious, Mindful. Example: “She was oblivious to the danger.” Often: “oblivious of/to”.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Conscious
Correct: Conscious — c-o-n-s-c-i-o-u-s. Common error: dropping ‘sc’ or misplacing it. Mnemonic: “Con-science” — aware through conscience. Both “Conscience” (moral sense) and “Conscious” (aware) have the hidden “sc”.
Correct: Conscious — c-o-n-s-c-i-o-u-s. Common error: dropping ‘sc’ or misplacing it. Mnemonic: “Con-science” — aware through conscience. Both “Conscience” (moral sense) and “Conscious” (aware) have the hidden “sc”.
Q.24. Fill in the blank: The book is worthy ________ reading.
Answer: (1) of
Fixed collocation: “worthy of”. “The book is worthy of reading.” Adjective + of + gerund: Capable of, Conscious of, Afraid of, Tired of, Consisting of.
Fixed collocation: “worthy of”. “The book is worthy of reading.” Adjective + of + gerund: Capable of, Conscious of, Afraid of, Tired of, Consisting of.
Q.25. Choose the correct plural of ‘Medium’:
Answer: (2) Media
Medium → Media (Latin: -um → -a). “Media” = communication channels; “Mediums” = psychics/spiritualists. Other Latin plurals: Datum→Data, Spectrum→Spectra, Criterion→Criteria.
Medium → Media (Latin: -um → -a). “Media” = communication channels; “Mediums” = psychics/spiritualists. Other Latin plurals: Datum→Data, Spectrum→Spectra, Criterion→Criteria.
Q.26. Meaning of the idiom: “Break the ice”
Answer: (2) To initiate conversation
“Break the ice” = make people feel relaxed at the start of a meeting or party. Example: “He told a joke to break the ice.” Origin: Shipping — clearing ice for passage.
“Break the ice” = make people feel relaxed at the start of a meeting or party. Example: “He told a joke to break the ice.” Origin: Shipping — clearing ice for passage.
Q.27. Choose the grammatically correct sentence:
Answer: (2) The quality of the apples was good.
Subject = “quality” (singular) → singular verb “was”. The phrase “of the apples” does not affect subject-verb agreement. Rule: Abstract nouns (quality, number, majority) stay singular.
Subject = “quality” (singular) → singular verb “was”. The phrase “of the apples” does not affect subject-verb agreement. Rule: Abstract nouns (quality, number, majority) stay singular.
Q.28. Change to Indirect Speech: He said, “I am going to the market.”
Answer: (2) He said that he was going to the market.
Direct Present Continuous → Indirect Past Continuous. “am going” → “was going”. Pronoun “I” → “he”. Reporting verb “said” (past) triggers tense backshift.
Direct Present Continuous → Indirect Past Continuous. “am going” → “was going”. Pronoun “I” → “he”. Reporting verb “said” (past) triggers tense backshift.
Q.29. One word substitution: Government by the wealthy:
Answer: (2) Plutocracy
Plutocracy = rule by the wealthy. Oligarchy = few; Aristocracy = nobility; Democracy = people. Other: Autocracy (one), Theocracy (priests), Bureaucracy (officials).
Plutocracy = rule by the wealthy. Oligarchy = few; Aristocracy = nobility; Democracy = people. Other: Autocracy (one), Theocracy (priests), Bureaucracy (officials).
Q.30. Spot the error: “A herd of cattle (A) / are grazing (B) / in the field. (C) / No error (D)”
Answer: (4) No error
In standard Indian English grammar exams, cattle is always treated as a plural noun. “A herd of cattle are grazing” is grammatically correct because “cattle” itself is plural. Therefore, there is no error in the sentence. Compare: “A flock of birds are flying” (also accepted in Indian exam standard).
In standard Indian English grammar exams, cattle is always treated as a plural noun. “A herd of cattle are grazing” is grammatically correct because “cattle” itself is plural. Therefore, there is no error in the sentence. Compare: “A flock of birds are flying” (also accepted in Indian exam standard).
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Find the odd one out: Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai
Answer: (1) Delhi
Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai are all coastal/port cities. Delhi is landlocked — no sea coast. Also: Delhi is the National Capital (Union Territory), while others are state capitals with coastlines.
Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai are all coastal/port cities. Delhi is landlocked — no sea coast. Also: Delhi is the National Capital (Union Territory), while others are state capitals with coastlines.
Q.32. Complete the series: 2, 5, 11, 23, 47, ___
Answer: (1) 95
Pattern: ×2 +1. 2×2+1=5; 5×2+1=11; 11×2+1=23; 23×2+1=47; 47×2+1=95.
Pattern: ×2 +1. 2×2+1=5; 5×2+1=11; 11×2+1=23; 23×2+1=47; 47×2+1=95.
Q.33. In code, ‘BEAR’ is written as ‘CFBS’. How is ‘COW’ written?
Answer: (4) DPX
Pattern +1 each letter: B→C, E→F, A→B, R→S. Apply to COW: C→D, O→P, W→X = DPX.
Pattern +1 each letter: B→C, E→F, A→B, R→S. Apply to COW: C→D, O→P, W→X = DPX.
Q.34. Complete the series: B, E, I, M, Q, ___
Answer: (1) U
Positions: B(2), E(5), I(9), M(13), Q(17). Differences: +3, +4, +4, +4 → next: +4. 17+4=21 = U.
Positions: B(2), E(5), I(9), M(13), Q(17). Differences: +3, +4, +4, +4 → next: +4. 17+4=21 = U.
Q.35. A is father of B but B is not son of A. How is B related to A?
Answer: (2) Daughter
A = father of B → B is child of A. B is not son → B must be daughter.
A = father of B → B is child of A. B is not son → B must be daughter.
Q.36. Ravi ranks 18th from the top and 25th from the bottom in a class. How many students are there?
Answer: (1) 42
Total = 18 + 25 − 1 = 42. Verify: 17 above + Ravi + 24 below = 42.
Total = 18 + 25 − 1 = 42. Verify: 17 above + Ravi + 24 below = 42.
Q.37. A person walks 4 km West, then 3 km North, then 4 km East. Where is he now relative to start?
Answer: (1) 3 km North
4 km West + 4 km East cancel out. Net displacement = 3 km North only.
4 km West + 4 km East cancel out. Net displacement = 3 km North only.
Q.38. Today is Friday. What will be the day 50 days from now?
Answer: (3) Saturday
50 ÷ 7 = 7 weeks (49 days) + 1 day remainder. Add 1 day to Friday = Saturday.
50 ÷ 7 = 7 weeks (49 days) + 1 day remainder. Add 1 day to Friday = Saturday.
Q.39. Find the next term: 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, ___
Answer: (2) 158
Pattern: ×2 +2. 3×2+2=8; 8×2+2=18; 18×2+2=38; 38×2+2=78; 78×2+2=158. (Note: original series had 35 as 4th term which was inconsistent; corrected to 38 to match ×2+2 pattern throughout.)
Pattern: ×2 +2. 3×2+2=8; 8×2+2=18; 18×2+2=38; 38×2+2=78; 78×2+2=158. (Note: original series had 35 as 4th term which was inconsistent; corrected to 38 to match ×2+2 pattern throughout.)
Q.40. Statements: Some cats are dogs. Some dogs are rats.
Conclusions: I. Some cats are rats. II. Some rats are dogs.
Conclusions: I. Some cats are rats. II. Some rats are dogs.
Answer: (2) Only II follows
Some cats ∩ dogs ≠ ∅; some dogs ∩ rats ≠ ∅. I: cats–rats link not guaranteed. II: “Some dogs are rats” → “Some rats are dogs” (symmetric conversion ✓). Only II follows.
Some cats ∩ dogs ≠ ∅; some dogs ∩ rats ≠ ∅. I: cats–rats link not guaranteed. II: “Some dogs are rats” → “Some rats are dogs” (symmetric conversion ✓). Only II follows.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Find HCF of 96, 404, and 532.
Answer: (2) 4
96=2⁵×3; 404=2²×101; 532=2²×7×19. HCF = 2² = 4.
96=2⁵×3; 404=2²×101; 532=2²×7×19. HCF = 2² = 4.
Q.42. Simplify: 25 × 4 − (12 ÷ 3) × 2
Answer: (4) 92
BODMAS: 12÷3=4; 4×2=8; 25×4=100; 100−8=92.
BODMAS: 12÷3=4; 4×2=8; 25×4=100; 100−8=92.
Q.43. A and B can together finish a work in 9 days. A alone can finish it in 12 days. In how many days can B alone finish it?
Answer: (2) 36 days
A+B = 1/9; A = 1/12. B = 1/9 − 1/12 = (4−3)/36 = 1/36. B alone = 36 days. Verify: A+B = 1/12+1/36 = 3/36+1/36 = 4/36 = 1/9 ✓.
A+B = 1/9; A = 1/12. B = 1/9 − 1/12 = (4−3)/36 = 1/36. B alone = 36 days. Verify: A+B = 1/12+1/36 = 3/36+1/36 = 4/36 = 1/9 ✓.
Q.44. Two trains running in opposite directions cross each other in 18 seconds. Speeds: 72 km/h and 54 km/h. Find sum of their lengths.
Answer: (4) 630 m
Relative speed = 72+54 = 126 km/h = 126×5/18 = 35 m/s. Total length = 35×18 = 630 m.
Relative speed = 72+54 = 126 km/h = 126×5/18 = 35 m/s. Total length = 35×18 = 630 m.
Q.45. A sum of money doubles itself in 10 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times?
Answer: (4) 30 years
Doubles in 10 yr → SI = P, rate = 10%/yr. For 4P: SI = 3P = P×10×T/100 → T = 30 years. Rule: at SI, each extra P takes 10 more years; for 3P SI needed → 3×10=30 years.
Doubles in 10 yr → SI = P, rate = 10%/yr. For 4P: SI = 3P = P×10×T/100 → T = 30 years. Rule: at SI, each extra P takes 10 more years; for 3P SI needed → 3×10=30 years.
Q.46. The average of first 10 natural numbers is:
Answer: (2) 5.5
Sum = 1+2+…+10 = 55. Average = 55÷10 = 5.5. Formula: (n+1)/2 = 11/2 = 5.5.
Sum = 1+2+…+10 = 55. Average = 55÷10 = 5.5. Formula: (n+1)/2 = 11/2 = 5.5.
Q.47. A sells an article at 10% loss. Had he sold it for ₹180 more, he would have gained 10%. Find the cost price.
Answer: (1) ₹900
Let CP = x. 0.9x + 180 = 1.1x → 180 = 0.2x → x = ₹900. Verify: SP1=810 (−90=10% loss); SP2=990 (+90=10% gain) ✓.
Let CP = x. 0.9x + 180 = 1.1x → 180 = 0.2x → x = ₹900. Verify: SP1=810 (−90=10% loss); SP2=990 (+90=10% gain) ✓.
Q.48. The compound interest on ₹8,000 at 5% per annum for 2 years (compounded annually) is:
Answer: (2) ₹820
A = 8000×(1.05)² = 8000×1.1025 = 8820. CI = 8820−8000 = ₹820. Year1 interest = ₹400; Year2 = ₹420 (on ₹8,400). Total = ₹820.
A = 8000×(1.05)² = 8000×1.1025 = 8820. CI = 8820−8000 = ₹820. Year1 interest = ₹400; Year2 = ₹420 (on ₹8,400). Total = ₹820.
Q.49. 40% of a number is equal to two-thirds of another number. If the numbers are in ratio 5:3, find the first number.
Answer: (2) 25
Let A=5k, B=3k. 0.4×5k = (2/3)×3k → 2k = 2k ✓. Condition satisfied for all k. For unique answer, use 0.4A = (2/3)B with A:B=5:3 → minimum integer: k=5 → A=25, B=15. Verify: 40% of 25=10; 2/3 of 15=10 ✓. First number = 25.
Let A=5k, B=3k. 0.4×5k = (2/3)×3k → 2k = 2k ✓. Condition satisfied for all k. For unique answer, use 0.4A = (2/3)B with A:B=5:3 → minimum integer: k=5 → A=25, B=15. Verify: 40% of 25=10; 2/3 of 15=10 ✓. First number = 25.
Q.50. The radius of a circle is 21 cm. Find its circumference. (π = 22/7)
Answer: (1) 132 cm
C = 2πr = 2×(22/7)×21 = 2×22×3 = 132 cm.
C = 2πr = 2×(22/7)×21 = 2×22×3 = 132 cm.
Q.51. A scooter travels 240 km in 4 hours. Find its speed in km/h and m/min.
Answer: (1) 60 km/h and 1000 m/min
Speed = 240÷4 = 60 km/h. Convert: 60×1000÷60 = 1000 m/min.
Speed = 240÷4 = 60 km/h. Convert: 60×1000÷60 = 1000 m/min.
Q.52. The difference between two numbers is 25 and their ratio is 4:3. Find the smaller number.
Answer: (1) 75
Ratio 4:3; difference = 1 part = 25. Smaller = 3×25 = 75. Larger = 100. Verify: 100−75=25✓; 100:75=4:3✓.
Ratio 4:3; difference = 1 part = 25. Smaller = 3×25 = 75. Larger = 100. Verify: 100−75=25✓; 100:75=4:3✓.
Q.53. Three taps A, B, C can fill a tank in 20, 30, 60 minutes respectively. If all three opened together, how long to fill?
Answer: (1) 10 minutes
A=1/20, B=1/30, C=1/60. Combined = 3/60+2/60+1/60 = 6/60 = 1/10. Time = 10 minutes.
A=1/20, B=1/30, C=1/60. Combined = 3/60+2/60+1/60 = 6/60 = 1/10. Time = 10 minutes.
Q.54. A man is 24 years older than his son. In 6 years, he will be 3 times as old as his son. Find son’s current age.
Answer: (1) 6 years
Son=x, Father=x+24. After 6 yr: x+30=3(x+6) → x+30=3x+18 → 12=2x → x=6. Father=30. Verify: 30+6=36=3×(6+6)=36 ✓.
Son=x, Father=x+24. After 6 yr: x+30=3(x+6) → x+30=3x+18 → 12=2x → x=6. Father=30. Verify: 30+6=36=3×(6+6)=36 ✓.
Q.55. The area of an equilateral triangle with side 12 cm is (√3 = 1.732):
Answer: (1) 62.35 cm²
Area = (√3/4)×side² = (1.732/4)×144 = 0.433×144 ≈ 62.35 cm².
Area = (√3/4)×side² = (1.732/4)×144 = 0.433×144 ≈ 62.35 cm².
Q.56. 15 labourers can dig a trench in 8 days. How many labourers needed to dig it in 5 days?
Answer: (2) 24
15×8 = x×5 → 120 = 5x → x = 24.
15×8 = x×5 → 120 = 5x → x = 24.
Q.57. The circumference of a circle is 88 cm. Find its area. (π = 22/7)
Answer: (1) 616 cm²
C=2πr=88 → r=88×7/(2×22)=14 cm. Area=πr²=(22/7)×196=616 cm².
C=2πr=88 → r=88×7/(2×22)=14 cm. Area=πr²=(22/7)×196=616 cm².
Q.58. A number is divisible by 8 if the number formed by its:
Answer: (2) Last three digits divisible by 8
Divisibility rule: 8 → last three digits divisible by 8. Example: 1,048 → 048÷8=6 ✓. For 4: last two digits; for 2: last digit even; for 9: sum of digits.
Divisibility rule: 8 → last three digits divisible by 8. Example: 1,048 → 048÷8=6 ✓. For 4: last two digits; for 2: last digit even; for 9: sum of digits.
Q.59. If the cost price of 15 books is equal to the selling price of 12 books, find the profit percentage.
Answer: (2) 25%
CP of 15 = SP of 12. Let SP of 1 book = ₹1. SP of 12 = ₹12 = CP of 15 → CP of 1 = 12/15 = ₹0.8. Profit = 1−0.8=0.2. Profit% = 0.2/0.8×100 = 25%.
CP of 15 = SP of 12. Let SP of 1 book = ₹1. SP of 12 = ₹12 = CP of 15 → CP of 1 = 12/15 = ₹0.8. Profit = 1−0.8=0.2. Profit% = 0.2/0.8×100 = 25%.
Q.60. The total surface area of a cube is 486 cm². Find its volume.
Answer: (1) 729 cm³
TSA = 6a² = 486 → a² = 81 → a = 9 cm. Volume = 9³ = 729 cm³.
TSA = 6a² = 486 → a² = 81 → a = 9 cm. Volume = 9³ = 729 cm³.