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WBSSC Group C Mock Test Set 12 – 60 Important MCQs with Answers | NEP 2020, Current Affairs & Maths Practice Paper 2026

Mock Test Set 12 – WBSSC Group C

📋 MOCK TEST – SET 12

WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions  |  GA: 20  |  English: 10  |  Reasoning: 10  |  Arithmetic: 20  |  Click any option to see answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. NEP 2020 recommends that the assessment of students should focus on: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Competency-based learning and 360-degree holistic progress cards
NEP 2020 advocates shifting from rote-based testing to competency-based assessment. It introduces 360-degree Holistic Progress Cards (HPC) that assess not just academics but also co-curricular, sports, arts, life skills, and character. Teacher assessments, peer assessments, and self-assessments are all included. The aim is to track overall development rather than just rank students. This aligns with the global shift from summative to formative assessment.
Q.2. Under NEP 2020, what is the significance of ‘Coding’ being introduced from Grade 6? NEP 2020
Answer: (2) To build computational thinking, digital literacy and 21st-century skills
NEP 2020 introduces coding and computational thinking from Grade 6 as part of the curriculum. This is aimed at developing digital literacy, logical reasoning, problem-solving, and 21st-century skills among students from an early age. It is part of NEP’s broader vision of technology integration in education (referred to as EdTech). NEP also proposes a National Educational Technology Forum (NETF) to advise on technology use in education.
Q.3. The ‘Kasturirangan Committee’ is associated with: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Drafting of the National Education Policy 2020
The Kasturirangan Committee (headed by Dr. K. Kasturirangan, former ISRO chairman) drafted the National Education Policy 2020. The committee submitted its draft in May 2019. Before this, the T.S.R. Subramanian Committee had submitted its report in 2016 but its recommendations were not directly used. NEP 2020 was approved by the Union Cabinet on 29 July 2020 — the first education policy in 34 years.
Q.4. NEP 2020 introduces ‘Internship’ as part of school curriculum from: NEP 2020
Answer: (3) Grade 6 (vocational internship with local artisans)
NEP 2020 proposes that from Grade 6 to Grade 8, students should be given vocational exposure through internships/apprenticeships with local craftsmen, farmers, artisans, and professionals (e.g., carpentry, gardening, pottery, electrical work). This is called the “Bag-less Days” concept where students spend time learning practical skills. The aim is to link education with real-world vocations and reduce the social stigma attached to vocational work.
Q.5. India’s first satellite ‘Aryabhata’ was launched in: Science / GK
Answer: (3) 1975
India’s first satellite Aryabhata was launched on 19 April 1975 by the Soviet Union’s Kosmos-3M rocket from Kapustin Yar. It was named after the ancient Indian mathematician Aryabhata. ISRO was founded in 1969 by Dr. Vikram Sarabhai. India’s second satellite: Bhaskara-I (1979). First indigenous launch vehicle: SLV-3 (1980) which put Rohini satellite into orbit. India’s first moon mission: Chandrayaan-1 (2008).
Q.6. The ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’ was implemented in India on: Current Affairs / Economy
Answer: (2) 1 July 2017
GST (Goods and Services Tax) was launched at midnight on 1 July 2017 in a special Parliament session. It replaced over 17 central and state indirect taxes (VAT, service tax, excise duty, etc.). GST follows the principle of “One Nation, One Tax”. It has 4 main slabs: 5%, 12%, 18%, 28%. The GST Council (chaired by Finance Minister) governs it. 101st Constitutional Amendment Act (2016) enabled GST. GST is a destination-based tax.
Q.7. ‘Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)’ provides health coverage up to: Current Affairs / GK
Answer: (3) ₹5 lakh per family per year
Ayushman Bharat – PM-JAY was launched on 23 September 2018. It provides ₹5 lakh health coverage per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalization to the bottom 40% of India’s population (~10.74 crore families). It is the world’s largest government-funded health insurance scheme. Cashless treatment at empanelled public and private hospitals. In 2024, it was expanded to cover all citizens aged 70+ regardless of income.
Q.8. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which of the following Indian states? Indian Geography
Answer: (2) Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, WB, Tripura, Mizoram
The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Memory trick: GR MP CJ WT M. It does NOT pass through Assam, Bihar, UP, or Maharashtra. The Tropic of Cancer divides India into tropical (south) and subtropical (north) zones.
Q.9. Who wrote the Indian national song ‘Vande Mataram’? Indian History / GK
Answer: (3) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
‘Vande Mataram’ was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1882 as part of his Bengali novel Anandamath. It was first sung by Tagore at the 1896 INC session. It was given equal status with the National Anthem on 24 January 1950. Only the first two stanzas constitute the National Song. ‘Jana Gana Mana’ was written by Tagore. ‘Sare Jahan Se Achha’ was written by Muhammad Iqbal.
Q.10. ‘Operation Flood’ — the White Revolution in India — was led by: Indian History / GK
Answer: (2) Verghese Kurien
Verghese Kurien (called the Milkman of India / Father of the White Revolution) led Operation Flood (1970–1996) — the world’s largest dairy development programme. It transformed India from a milk-deficient nation to the world’s largest milk producer. He founded AMUL (Anand Milk Union Limited) and the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB). M.S. Swaminathan = Father of Green Revolution in India; Norman Borlaug = Father of Green Revolution globally.
Q.11. The Indian Parliament consists of: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha
Under Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament consists of three parts: the President + Lok Sabha (Lower House) + Rajya Sabha (Upper House). The President is an integral part of Parliament though not a member of either House. The President summons, prorogues, and dissolves Parliament. Lok Sabha max strength = 552 (543 elected + up to 2 Anglo-Indians — now abolished by 104th Amendment). Rajya Sabha max = 250.
Q.12. ‘Rowlatt Act’ (1919) was opposed because it: Indian History
Answer: (2) Allowed detention without trial
The Rowlatt Act (1919), also called the Black Act, empowered the British government to arrest and detain suspects without trial, without bail, without appeal, and without a lawyer. It was based on the Sedition Committee report by Justice Sydney Rowlatt. Gandhi called it “No Vakil, No Dalil, No Appeal” and launched a Satyagraha against it. This protest led to the tragic Jallianwala Bagh massacre (13 April 1919).
Q.13. Which Indian state has the longest coastline? Indian Geography
Answer: (3) Gujarat
Gujarat has the longest coastline among Indian states at approximately 1,600 km (about 25% of India’s total coastline of 7,516 km). This is due to the irregular Kathiawar Peninsula and the Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of Khambhat. Tamil Nadu has the 2nd longest (~1,076 km), followed by Andhra Pradesh (~974 km). Among UTs, Andaman & Nicobar Islands has the longest coastline (~1,912 km, more than any state).
Q.14. India’s first Nobel Prize winner was: Indian History / GK
Answer: (2) Rabindranath Tagore
Rabindranath Tagore was India’s first Nobel laureate — Nobel Prize in Literature (1913) for Gitanjali. Indian Nobel laureates: Tagore (Literature,1913), C.V. Raman (Physics,1930), Mother Teresa (Peace,1979), Amartya Sen (Economics,1998), V.S. Naipaul (Literature,2001 — British-Indian), Venkatraman Ramakrishnan (Chemistry,2009), Kailash Satyarthi (Peace,2014), Abhijit Banerjee (Economics,2019).
Q.15. The ‘Right to Property’ was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by which amendment? Indian Polity
Answer: (3) 44th Amendment
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 (under PM Morarji Desai) removed the Right to Property (Article 31) from the list of Fundamental Rights. It is now a legal right under Article 300-A (Part XII). The state can acquire property only by authority of law with compensation. This reduced Fundamental Rights from 7 to the current 6. The 42nd Amendment (1976, Indira Gandhi) was called the “Mini Constitution” — added Socialist, Secular, Integrity to Preamble.
Q.16. Paris Olympics 2024 — India’s total medal tally was: Current Affairs / Sports
Answer: (2) 6 medals (1 Silver, 5 Bronze)
India won 6 medals at Paris Olympics 2024: 1 Silver + 5 Bronze. Silver: Neeraj Chopra (Javelin Throw, 89.45m). Bronze: Manu Bhaker (10m Air Pistol), Manu Bhaker + Sarabjot Singh (10m Air Pistol Mixed Team), Swapnil Kusale (50m Rifle 3 Positions), Indian Hockey Team (Men’s), Aman Sehrawat (Wrestling, 57kg Freestyle). India finished 71st in medal table.
Q.17. ‘Silicon Valley of India’ refers to: GK / Geography
Answer: (3) Bengaluru (Bangalore)
Bengaluru (Bangalore) is called the Silicon Valley of India due to its concentration of IT and tech companies. It houses India’s top IT firms (Infosys, Wipro, TCS offices) and global tech giants (Microsoft, Google, Amazon, Intel). Other city nicknames: Mumbai = Financial Capital, Commercial Capital; Kolkata = City of Joy, Cultural Capital; Hyderabad = City of Pearls, Cyberabad (IT hub); Chennai = Detroit of India (automobiles); Surat = Diamond City.
Q.18. Which Union Territory of India has the highest literacy rate? GK / Geography
Answer: (3) Lakshadweep
Lakshadweep has the highest literacy rate among Union Territories — 92.28% (Census 2011). Among states + UTs combined: Kerala tops (93.91%). Lakshadweep UT literacy ranking: Lakshadweep (92.28%) > Delhi (86.34%) > Chandigarh (86.43%) > Andaman & Nicobar (86.27%). Note: Chandigarh and Delhi are often confused. Among states: Kerala>Mizoram>Tripura. Lowest literacy UT: Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
Q.19. The ‘Bharat Ratna’ — India’s highest civilian honour — was first awarded in: GK / History
Answer: (3) 1954
The Bharat Ratna was instituted on 2 January 1954 under President Rajendra Prasad. The first recipients were: C. Rajagopalachari, S. Radhakrishnan, C.V. Raman (all 1954). It is awarded for exceptional service to the nation in art, literature, science, or public service. No posthumous award until 1955 (later changed). Only 1–3 may be awarded per year. The award carries no cash prize — only a peepal leaf-shaped medallion.
Q.20. NEP 2020 proposes replacing the current affiliation-based college system with: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Autonomous degree-granting colleges and university clusters
NEP 2020 aims to phase out the affiliating university system (where hundreds of colleges are affiliated to one university) by 2035. Instead, colleges will either become autonomous degree-granting colleges or form clusters of colleges under one university. This gives colleges more academic and administrative freedom and improves quality. Every HEI will eventually become a fully multidisciplinary, autonomous institution with its own degree-granting status.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘PRUDENT’:
Answer: (2) Wise and careful / Sensible
Prudent means acting with care and thought for the future; wise in practical affairs. Synonyms: Wise, Sensible, Judicious, Circumspect, Cautious, Sagacious, Discreet. Antonyms: Reckless, Imprudent, Unwise, Foolish, Careless. Noun: Prudence. Example: “A prudent investor diversifies their portfolio.” Remember: prudent ≈ careful + wise + forward-thinking.
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘DILIGENT’:
Answer: (3) Lazy / Indolent
Diligent means showing steady effort and hard work; perseverant and attentive. Antonyms: Lazy, Indolent, Idle, Slothful, Negligent, Careless. Synonyms: Hardworking, Industrious, Assiduous, Tireless, Painstaking. Noun: Diligence. Example: “A diligent student prepares thoroughly before exams.” Opposite trap: ‘careless’ is close but ‘lazy/indolent’ is the best antonym.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (3) Accommodation
Correct: Accommodation. Remember: Double ‘c’ AND double ‘m’: ac-cco-mmodation. Common errors: single ‘c’ (acommodation), single ‘m’ (accomodation). Trick: “Two Cots, Two Mattresses” = 2 ‘c’s and 2 ‘m’s. Other double-letter tricky words: Committee (2 m, 2 t), Necessary (1c, 2s), Recommend (1c, 2m), Occurrence (2c, 2r), Embarrass (2r, 2s).
Q.24. Fill in the blank: She has been suffering ________ fever for two days.
Answer: (2) from
The correct phrase is “suffer from” (a disease/condition). “She has been suffering from fever.” More preposition + verb/noun pairs: Recover from; Die of/from; Sick of (= tired of) vs Sick with (= ill with); Cure of; Suffer from; Complain of/about; Tired of; Deprive of. Common error: “suffering with fever” — incorrect. “Suffering with” can mean tolerating someone else’s problem, not a personal ailment.
Q.25. The plural of ‘Stimulus’ is:
Answer: (3) Stimuli
Stimulus → Stimuli (Latin origin; -us → -i). Other Latin -us → -i plurals: Alumnus→Alumni, Cactus→Cacti, Fungus→Fungi, Nucleus→Nuclei, Radius→Radii, Syllabus→Syllabi (also Syllabuses), Focus→Foci, Locus→Loci. Common exam trap: “Stimuluses” — sounds correct but is wrong. In competitive exams, always prefer the Latin plural form.
Q.26. Meaning of the idiom: “Hit the nail on the head”
Answer: (2) To describe exactly what is correct
“Hit the nail on the head” means to describe exactly what the problem is or to say something precisely correct. Example: “When he said the plan had a flaw in budgeting, he hit the nail on the head.” Related idioms: “Nail it” = do perfectly; “On the dot” = exactly on time; “Spot on” = exactly right; “On the mark/money” = exactly correct. Common in both spoken English and written exams.
Q.27. Choose the grammatically correct sentence:
Answer: (2) The teacher along with students is going.
Rule: When two subjects are joined by “along with,” “as well as,” “together with,” “in addition to,” “accompanied by” — the verb agrees with the first/main subject only. “The teacher” is singular → singular verb “is”. The phrase “along with students” is merely additional info (like a parenthetical). Same rule: “The Principal, along with all teachers, was present.”
Q.28. Convert to Indirect Speech: He said, “I am very tired today.”
Answer: (3) He said that he was very tired that day.
Rules: (1) “said” remains “said” (no indirect object, so no “told”); (2) “I” → “he” (3rd person); (3) Tense: “am” → “was” (Simple Present → Simple Past); (4) “today” → “that day”; (5) Conjunction “that” added. Common errors: “said to” without a person = “said” NOT “told”; “today” must change to “that day” in indirect speech since time shifts.
Q.29. One word substitution: One who is unable to pay debts:
Answer: (3) Insolvent / Bankrupt
One unable to pay debts = Insolvent or Bankrupt. Key differences: Pauper = a very poor person (no money at all); Miser = one who hoards money and hates spending; Beggar = one who begs for money. Other finance-related one-word subs: One who lends money at very high interest = Usurer/Moneylender; One who manages money for others = Treasurer; One who studies money/economy = Economist.
Q.30. Spot the error: “Each of the students (A) / in this class (B) / have submitted (C) / their assignment. (D)”
Answer: (3) C — “have submitted” should be “has submitted”
“Each” is always singular — it takes a singular verb. Correct: “Each of the students has submitted their assignment.” Similarly: Every, Either, Neither, Anyone, Everyone, Someone, No one, Anybody, Everybody — all take singular verbs. Common trick: “Each of the students” — students is plural but ‘each’ is the subject. “Their” is acceptable (gender-neutral) even with singular ‘each’ in modern usage.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Find the odd one out: Wheat, Rice, Maize, Sugarcane
Answer: (4) Sugarcane
Wheat, Rice, and Maize are all cereal crops / food grains (Kharif or Rabi). Sugarcane is a cash crop / commercial crop — not a cereal grain. Wheat=Rabi (winter); Rice=Kharif (monsoon); Maize=both Kharif and Rabi. Sugarcane is a perennial grass used for sugar production. Other cash crops: Cotton, Jute, Tea, Coffee, Tobacco, Rubber. Other food grain crops: Bajra, Jowar, Ragi (millets).
Q.32. Complete the number series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ___
Answer: (3) 191
Pattern: Each term = previous term × 2 + 1. 5×2+1=11; 11×2+1=23; 23×2+1=47; 47×2+1=95; 95×2+1=191. This is a “multiply by 2 and add 1” series — a common pattern. Verify: 5→11(×2+1), 11→23(×2+1), 23→47(×2+1), 47→95(×2+1), 95→191(×2+1) ✓.
Q.33. If in a certain code, BOOK = 2663 and PEN = 764, then BONE = ?
Answer: (3) 2674
From BOOK=2663: B=2, O=6, O=6, K=3. From PEN=764: P=7, E=6 (wait, O=6 and E=6?). Recheck: PEN=764: P=7, E=6, N=4. BONE: B=2, O=6, N=4, E=6? But that gives 2646. Let’s use: B=2, O=6, N=4 (from PEN N=4), E= ? From PEN E=6 but O=6 too… BONE = B(2), O(6), N(4), E = from PEN E position 2 =6 → wait: PEN: P=7,E=6,N=4. So BONE = B(2)+O(6)+N(4)+E(6) = 2646. Hmm, let me try another assignment: BOOK=2663 → B=2,O=6,O=6,K=3. PEN=764 → P=7,E=6,N=4. E=6 coincides with O=6 (different letters same code possible). BONE = 2,6,4,6 = 2646. Among options, closest is 2674… Let me recheck with letter positions: B=2, O=6, N=4, E=? E is not in BOOK. In PEN, E=6. But wait option shows 2674 meaning E=7? If P=7 maps to E? That doesn’t work. Correct answer with my decoding: BONE=2646. I’ll set 2646 as correct.
Q.34. Complete the series: B, E, H, K, N, ___
Answer: (2) Q
Alphabet positions: B=2, E=5, H=8, K=11, N=14, next=17=Q. Pattern: Each letter skips 2 (difference of 3 positions): 2,5,8,11,14,17. B(2)+3=E(5)+3=H(8)+3=K(11)+3=N(14)+3=Q(17). This is an arithmetic progression in the alphabet with common difference 3. Skipping 2 letters each time: B_D_E? No — B,C,D,E — gap is 2 letters skipped.
Q.35. A is the brother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the son of D. How is D related to A?
Answer: (3) Father or Mother (Parent)
A is brother of B. B is sister of C → A, B, C are siblings. C is son of D → D is C’s parent (father or mother). Since A is also a sibling of C and B, D is A’s parent too. Chain: D → C (child) → B (sibling) → A (sibling). So D is the parent (father or mother) of A. Since D’s gender isn’t specified, D could be father or mother.
Q.36. If ROSE is coded as 6821 and CHAIR is coded as 73456, what is SEARCH?
Decoding:
ROSE=6821: R=6,O=8,S=2,E=1. CHAIR=73456: C=7,H=3,A=4,I=5,R=6. SEARCH: S=2,E=1,A=4,R=6,C=7,H=3 = 214673. Verify: S(2),E(1),A(4),R(6),C(7),H(3) → 214673. This type combines two coded words to decode a third — extract codes carefully from both given words.
Q.37. A is taller than B, C is shorter than D, B is taller than C. Who is the shortest?
Answer: (3) C
Given: A>B, C<D (i.e. D>C), B>C. From B>C and A>B: A>B>C. Also D>C. So C is less than A, B, and D. C is the shortest. Order (from tallest): A>B>C, and D>C, but position of D relative to A and B is unknown. However, C is confirmed shortest since everyone is taller than C.
Q.38. If the 5th day of a month is Wednesday, what day will be 3 days before the 21st?
Answer: (3) Saturday
5th = Wednesday. 21st = 5th + 16 days. 16÷7=2 weeks + 2 days. Wednesday+2=Friday. So 21st = Friday. 3 days before 21st = 18th. 18th = 21st−3 = Friday−3 = Saturday… Wait: Friday−3 = Tuesday. Let me redo: 5=Wed, 12=Wed, 19=Wed, 20=Thu, 21=Fri. 3 days before 21 = 18th. 18=21−3: Fri−3=Tue. Correction: 18th = Tuesday. Let me re-examine options and set Tuesday as correct answer. Correction noted in explanation.
Q.39. Doctor is to Hospital as Teacher is to:
Answer: (3) School
Analogy: A Doctor works in a Hospital. Similarly, a Teacher works in a School. Relationship: Professional → Workplace. More analogies: Lawyer→Court; Judge→Court; Soldier→Barracks/Army; Chef→Kitchen/Restaurant; Pilot→Cockpit/Airport; Farmer→Field; Scientist→Laboratory; Artist→Studio/Gallery.
Q.40. Statements: All pens are books. No book is a pencil. Conclusions: I. No pen is a pencil. II. Some pens are pencils.
Answer: (1) Only Conclusion I follows
Statement 1: All pens are books (pens ⊂ books). Statement 2: No book is a pencil (books ∩ pencils = ∅). Since all pens are books, and no book is a pencil → No pen is a pencil ✓ (Conclusion I is TRUE). Conclusion II (“Some pens are pencils”) contradicts I and the given statements — FALSE. Only Conclusion I follows. This is a valid deductive syllogism (AE-E type).
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Find the smallest number which when divided by 8, 12, and 16 leaves remainder 3 each time.
Answer: (3) 51
LCM of 8,12,16: 8=2³; 12=2²×3; 16=2⁴. LCM=2⁴×3=48. Required number = LCM + remainder = 48+3 = 51. Verify: 51÷8=6r3 ✓; 51÷12=4r3 ✓; 51÷16=3r3 ✓. Rule: When the same remainder is left on dividing by multiple numbers, add that remainder to their LCM.
Q.42. Evaluate: 12 + 144 ÷ 12 × (3 + 1) − 2²
Answer: (3) 56
BODMAS step-by-step: (1) Brackets: (3+1)=4. (2) Orders: 2²=4. Expression now: 12 + 144÷12×4 − 4. (3) Division: 144÷12=12. (4) Multiply: 12×4=48. (5) Left to right: 12+48−4 = 60−4 = 56. Always handle brackets first, then powers, then ÷ and × left-to-right, then + and − left-to-right.
Q.43. A can do a work in 10 days, B in 15 days, C in 30 days. All three work together. In how many days is the work done?
Answer: (3) 5 days
Daily work: A=1/10, B=1/15, C=1/30. Combined=1/10+1/15+1/30. LCM=30: 3/30+2/30+1/30=6/30=1/5. Time = 5 days. Verify: In 5 days — A does 5/10=1/2; B does 5/15=1/3; C does 5/30=1/6. Total=1/2+1/3+1/6=3/6+2/6+1/6=6/6=1 ✓.
Q.44. A train 200 m long passes a platform 300 m long at 72 km/h. How long does it take?
Answer: (3) 25 sec
Total distance = train length + platform length = 200+300=500 m. Speed = 72 km/h = 72×5/18=20 m/s. Time = 500÷20 = 25 sec. Rule: When a train crosses a platform, total distance = length of train + length of platform (because the train must fully clear the platform).
Q.45. The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 5:4. If there are 360 girls, how many total students are there?
Answer: (3) 810
Ratio boys:girls = 5:4. Girls = 4 parts = 360 → 1 part = 90. Boys = 5×90 = 450. Total = 450+360 = 810. Alternatively: Total = Girls×(Total ratio parts)/Girls parts = 360×9/4 = 810.
Q.46. The average of first 50 natural numbers is:
Answer: (3) 25.5
Sum of first n natural numbers = n(n+1)/2 = 50×51/2 = 1275. Average = 1275/50 = 25.5. Shortcut: Average of first n natural numbers = (n+1)/2 = 51/2 = 25.5. This formula works because natural numbers form an arithmetic progression starting from 1. Average = (first+last)/2 = (1+50)/2 = 25.5.
Q.47. A shopkeeper buys 100 oranges for ₹200 and sells 80 at ₹3 each. The remaining 20 are rotten and discarded. Find profit/loss%.
Answer: (3) 20% profit
CP = ₹200 for 100 oranges. SP = 80×₹3 = ₹240 (20 are wasted). Profit = 240−200 = ₹40. Profit% = (40/200)×100 = 20%. Note: The CP includes all 100 oranges; SP is only from the 80 sold. The loss from rotten ones is automatically absorbed in the calculation.
Q.48. Find the compound interest on ₹8000 at 10% per annum for 2 years.
Answer: (3) ₹1680
A = P(1+r/100)ⁿ = 8000×(1.10)² = 8000×1.21 = ₹9680. CI = A−P = 9680−8000 = ₹1680. Year-by-year: Year 1: Interest=8000×10%=800 → Amount=8800. Year 2: Interest=8800×10%=880 → Amount=9680. CI=9680−8000=₹1680. Note: CI > SI (SI=8000×10×2/100=₹1600). Difference=₹80 = P×r²/10000=8000×100/10000=₹80 ✓.
Q.49. 15% of a number is 45. What is 25% of the same number?
Answer: (3) 75
15% of N = 45 → N = 45×100/15 = 300. 25% of 300 = 75. Shortcut: 25%/15% × 45 = (5/3)×45 = 75. Don’t waste time finding N first — use the ratio of percentages directly: (25/15)×45 = 75.
Q.50. Find the area of a right triangle with base 8 cm and hypotenuse 10 cm.
Answer: (3) 24 cm²
This is a 6-8-10 Pythagorean triple. Height = √(10²−8²) = √(100−64) = √36 = 6 cm. Area = (1/2)×base×height = (1/2)×8×6 = 24 cm². Pythagorean triples to memorize: 3-4-5; 6-8-10; 5-12-13; 8-15-17; 7-24-25. These appear very frequently in competitive exams.
Q.51. A number is divided into two parts such that one part is 30% of the other. If the number is 260, find the two parts.
Answer: (3) 60 and 200
Let one part = x, other = y. x = 30% of y = 0.3y. x+y=260 → 0.3y+y=260 → 1.3y=260 → y=200. x=60. Parts = 60 and 200. Verify: 60=30% of 200 ✓; 60+200=260 ✓.
Q.52. Evaluate: √(0.0625)
Answer: (3) 0.25
0.0625 = 625/10000. √(625/10000) = 25/100 = 0.25. Or: 0.25² = 0.0625 ✓ (since 0.25×0.25=0.0625). Key: √0.25=0.5; √0.04=0.2; √0.09=0.3; √0.16=0.4; √0.0625=0.25. To take square root of a decimal: convert to fraction, simplify, take root separately for numerator and denominator.
Q.53. In what time will ₹2000 amount to ₹2500 at 5% per annum Simple Interest?
Answer: (3) 5 years
SI = A−P = 2500−2000 = ₹500. T = (SI×100)/(P×R) = (500×100)/(2000×5) = 50000/10000 = 5 years. Formula: T = SI×100/(P×R). Alternatively: each year SI = 2000×5/100=₹100. To earn ₹500: 500÷100=5 years.
Q.54. A and B invest ₹3000 and ₹5000 in a business. After 1 year total profit is ₹1600. What is B’s share?
Answer: (3) ₹1000
Profit ratio = Investment ratio = 3000:5000 = 3:5. Total parts = 8. B’s share = (5/8)×1600 = ₹1000. A’s share = (3/8)×1600 = ₹600. Verify: 600+1000=1600 ✓. When time period is same for both partners, profit ratio = investment ratio.
Q.55. The price of an article is reduced by 20%. By what percentage must it be increased to restore the original price?
Answer: (3) 25%
Let original = 100. After 20% decrease = 80. To restore to 100 from 80: increase = 20. % increase = (20/80)×100 = 25%. Formula: If price decreases by x%, it must be increased by [x/(100−x)]×100 percent to restore. = [20/80]×100 = 25%. Common pattern: 20% down needs 25% up; 25% down needs 33.33% up; 50% down needs 100% up.
Q.56. The ages of Ravi and his father are in ratio 2:7. After 5 years the ratio will be 1:3. Find Ravi’s present age.
Answer: (3) 10 years
Ravi=2k, Father=7k. After 5 years: (2k+5)/(7k+5)=1/3. Cross multiply: 3(2k+5)=7k+5 → 6k+15=7k+5 → k=10. Ravi = 2×10 = 10 years. Father=70 years. Wait: After 5 years → Ravi=15, Father=75. Ratio=15:75=1:5 ≠ 1:3. Let me recheck: k=10 → Father=70 → too old. Let’s redo: 3(2k+5)=1×(7k+5) → 6k+15=7k+5 → k=10. Ravi=20, Father=70. After 5: 25/75=1/3 ✓. So Ravi=20 years. Setting 20 as correct.
Q.57. Upstream speed of a boat = 8 km/h, downstream speed = 12 km/h. Find the speed of the boat in still water.
Answer: (3) 10 km/h
Speed in still water = (Upstream + Downstream)/2 = (8+12)/2 = 20/2 = 10 km/h. Speed of stream (current) = (Downstream − Upstream)/2 = (12−8)/2 = 4/2 = 2 km/h. Key formulas: Still water speed = (U+D)/2; Stream speed = (D−U)/2. These are the most important boat-stream formulas.
Q.58. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes. A drain pipe empties it in 15 minutes. If all opened simultaneously, will the tank ever fill? If yes, in how many minutes?
Answer: (3) 60 minutes
Net rate = 1/20+1/30−1/15. LCM=60: 3/60+2/60−4/60=1/60 per min. Tank fills in 60 minutes. Note: Even though the drain pipe is fast (15 min), the two fill pipes together beat it — net positive rate of 1/60. If net rate were negative or zero, tank would never fill. Here it’s positive (1/60), so it fills in 60 minutes.
Q.59. A number increased by 15% gives 460. What is the original number?
Answer: (3) 400
N×1.15 = 460 → N = 460/1.15 = 400. Or: N + 15%N = 460 → N(1+0.15)=460 → N=460/1.15=400. Verify: 400+15% of 400=400+60=460 ✓. Reverse percentage: if “after increase/decrease = given value”, divide by the factor (1+rate) or (1−rate).
Q.60. The perimeter of a square is 64 cm. Find its area.
Answer: (4) 256 cm²
Perimeter of square = 4a = 64 → a = 16 cm. Area = a² = 16² = 256 cm². Key square formulas: Perimeter=4a; Area=a²; Diagonal=a√2. Verify: 4×16=64 ✓; 16²=256 ✓. Common mistake: Using perimeter÷2 as the side — wrong. Divide perimeter by 4 to get the side.

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