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WBSSC Group C Mock Test 2026: Set 29 Clerk Practice Paper | Full Solved MCQs

Mock Test Set 29 – WBSSC Group C

📋 MOCK TEST – SET 29

WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions  |  GA: 20  |  English: 10  |  Reasoning: 10  |  Arithmetic: 20  |  Click option to reveal answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. Under NEP 2020, the ‘Special Education Zones (SEZs)’ are created for: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Disadvantaged regions and groups
NEP 2020 proposes Special Education Zones for aspirational districts, tribal areas, and educationally backward regions. Extra resources, residential schools, special attention to SC/ST/OBC/minority/girl children in these zones.
Q.2. Under NEP 2020, the ‘National Professional Standards for Teachers (NPST)’ are developed by: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) NCTE
NPST developed by NCTE in consultation with NCERT, SCERTs, teachers. Defines teacher roles, competencies, career progression across 4 stages: preparatory, trained, senior, lead.
Q.3. NEP 2020 recommends that Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) should move towards becoming ‘multidisciplinary’ by: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 2040
NEP 2020 envisions that by 2040, all HEIs shall aim to become full multidisciplinary institutions. Phased implementation with milestones at 2025 and 2030.
Q.4. Under NEP 2020, ‘NISHTHA’ programme is related to: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Capacity building of teachers
NISHTHA (National Initiative for School Heads’ and Teachers’ Holistic Advancement) = world’s largest teacher training programme. Under NCERT/DIKSHA. Covers competency-based teaching, FLN, inclusive education, ICT integration.
Q.5. The ‘Permanent Settlement’ of 1793 in Bengal was introduced by: Indian History
Answer: (2) Lord Cornwallis
Permanent Settlement 1793 introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa. Fixed land revenue permanently with zamindars. Created loyal class but exploited farmers.
Q.6. The ‘Simon Commission’ (1927) was boycotted by Indians because: Indian History
Answer: (2) No Indian member
Simon Commission (1927): 7-member all-British commission. Boycotted with “Simon Go Back” slogans. Lala Lajpat Rai lathi-charged; died 1928. Led to Nehru Report (1928) as Indian alternative.
Q.7. The ‘Teesta River’ flows through which districts of West Bengal before entering Bangladesh? West Bengal
Answer: (2) Darjeeling, Jalpaiguri, and Cooch Behar
Teesta River originates in Sikkim, enters WB through Darjeeling, flows through Jalpaiguri and Cooch Behar, then enters Bangladesh. Teesta water-sharing remains an India–Bangladesh issue.
Q.8. ‘Newton’s Third Law of Motion’ states: Science
Answer: (2) Equal and opposite reaction
Newton’s Third Law: For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. Examples: rocket propulsion, swimming. First Law=inertia; Second Law=F=ma.
Q.9. The ‘Lahore Session of INC’ (1929) is famous for: Indian History
Answer: (2) Purna Swaraj
Lahore Session (Dec 1929) under Jawaharlal Nehru: passed Purna Swaraj resolution. Tricolour hoisted on banks of Ravi. 26 Jan 1930 declared as Independence Day (now Republic Day).
Q.10. The ‘National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP)’ was launched in: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) 2021
NMP launched August 2021 by NITI Aayog. Monetises existing (brownfield) government infrastructure assets through private partnerships. Target: ₹6 lakh crore over FY2022–25.
Q.11. The ‘Right to Education Act (RTE)’ 2009 ensures free and compulsory education for children aged: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) 6–14 years
RTE Act 2009 (Article 21-A): Free and compulsory education for 6–14 years. 25% reservation in private schools for EWS. Enforced from 1 April 2010.
Q.12. ‘Hazarduari Palace’ is located in which city of West Bengal? West Bengal
Answer: (2) Murshidabad
Hazarduari Palace (1829–37) in Murshidabad. “Hazarduari” = 1,000 doors (900 real + 100 false). ASI museum; one of Bengal’s finest palaces.
Q.13. India’s first indigenously developed aircraft carrier is: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) INS Vikrant
INS Vikrant (IAC-1) = India’s first indigenously built aircraft carrier. Commissioned 2 September 2022 by PM Modi at Cochin Shipyard. 45,000 tonnes, 262 m long.
Q.14. The ‘Fundamental Duties’ were added to the Indian Constitution by the: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) 42nd Amendment, 1976
Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) inserted by 42nd Amendment 1976 (Swaran Singh Committee). Originally 10 duties; 11th added by 86th Amendment 2002. Part IV-A.
Q.15. The ‘Belur Math’ in West Bengal is the headquarters of: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Ramakrishna Mission
Belur Math (Howrah, WB) = HQ of Ramakrishna Math and Ramakrishna Mission, founded by Swami Vivekananda (1897). On the banks of Hooghly. Sri Ramakrishna’s relics enshrined here.
Q.16. The ‘Ayushman Bharat – PM Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)’ provides health cover of: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) ₹5 lakh per family per year
AB-PMJAY (2018): ₹5 lakh per family per year. Covers 55 crore beneficiaries. Cashless treatment at empanelled hospitals. Extended to senior citizens (70+) in 2024.
Q.17. The ‘pH value’ of pure water is: Science
Answer: (2) 7
Pure water pH = 7 (neutral). pH <7 = acidic; pH >7 = alkaline. Human blood pH ≈ 7.35–7.45.
Q.18. The ‘Question Hour’ in Indian Parliament is the: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) First hour of each sitting
Question Hour = first hour of each parliamentary sitting. Members ask oral/written questions to ministers. Starred (oral), Unstarred (written), Short Notice questions. Most powerful oversight tool.
Q.19. The ‘Victoria Memorial’ in Kolkata was built to commemorate: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Queen Victoria
Victoria Memorial (1906–21) built to commemorate Queen Victoria (died 1901). Designed by William Emerson in Indo-Saracenic style. White Makrana marble. Lord Curzon conceived the idea.
Q.20. The ‘Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2024’ ranked India at: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) 105th out of 127 countries
GHI 2024: India ranked 105th out of 127 with score 27.3 (serious category). Government disputed the methodology.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘GARRULOUS’:
Answer: (2) Excessively talkative
Garrulous = excessively talkative, especially about trivial matters. Synonyms: Loquacious, Voluble, Verbose, Chatty. Antonym: Taciturn, Reticent.
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘DILIGENT’:
Answer: (2) Lazy
Diligent = showing care and effort in work. Antonyms: Lazy, Idle, Negligent, Careless, Indolent.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Harassment
Harassment — single ‘r’, double ‘s’. H-A-R-A-S-S-M-E-N-T. Common errors: double ‘r’ or single ‘s’.
Q.24. Fill in the blank: The patient died ________ cancer.
Answer: (1) of
Die of = disease/illness/emotion. “Die of cancer/fever/grief.” Die from = external causes. “He died from his injuries.”
Q.25. The correct plural of ‘Datum’ is:
Answer: (2) Data
Latin origin: Datum → Data. In formal/exam context: Datum → Data. Similarly Phenomenon→Phenomena, Medium→Media.
Q.26. Idiom: “Spill the beans”
Answer: (2) Reveal secret information
“Spill the beans” = to reveal a secret unintentionally. “Who spilled the beans about the party?”
Q.27. Choose the correct sentence:
Answer: (2)
Third conditional: If + past perfect, would + have + past participle. “If I had known, I would have helped.” Never use “would” in the ‘if’ clause.
Q.28. Change to Indirect Speech: The doctor said to the patient, “Take this medicine twice a day.”
Answer: (2)
Imperative → reporting verb = advised. “Take” → “to take”. “this” → “that”. “The doctor advised the patient to take that medicine twice a day.”
Q.29. One word for: A place where birds are kept.
Answer: (2) Aviary
Aviary = large enclosure for birds. Aquarium=fish; Apiary=bees; Granary=grain storage.
Q.30. Spot the error: “Neither Ravi (A) / nor his friends (B) / was present (C) / at the function. (D)”
Answer: (3) C — “were present”
Neither…nor: verb agrees with nearer subject. “his friends” (plural) → plural verb “were”. “Neither Ravi nor his friends were present.”
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Odd one out: Table, Chair, Stool, Bench, Cupboard
Answer: (1) Cupboard
Table, Chair, Stool, Bench are seating/sitting furniture. Cupboard is a storage unit — different category.
Q.32. Complete the series: 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ___
Answer: (2) 21
Fibonacci series: each term = sum of previous two. 8+13 = 21.
Q.33. In a certain code, ‘GOAL’ is written as ‘IQCN’. How is ‘KING’ coded?
Answer: (1) MKPI
+2 shift: G+2=I, O+2=Q, A+2=C, L+2=N ✓. KING: K+2=M, I+2=K, N+2=P, G+2=I = MKPI.
Q.34. Complete the series: 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, ___
Answer: (2) 35
Pattern: n²−1 — 1−1=0, 4−1=3, 9−1=8, 16−1=15, 25−1=24, 36−1=35.
Q.35. Deepa is the wife of Suresh. Suresh’s father is Ram. Ram’s wife is Kamla. How is Kamla related to Deepa?
Answer: (2) Mother-in-law
Deepa = wife of Suresh. Suresh’s father = Ram. Ram’s wife = Kamla = Suresh’s mother = Deepa’s mother-in-law.
Q.36. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456, and PREACH is coded as 961473. What is the code for SEARCH?
Answer: (1) 214673
From codes: R=6, O=8, S=2, E=1, C=7, H=3, A=4, I=5, P=9. SEARCH: S=2, E=1, A=4, R=6, C=7, H=3 = 214673.
Q.37. Kavya faces North. She turns 90° clockwise, then 180° anticlockwise. Which direction does she face now?
Answer: (2) West
Start: North. +90° clockwise → East. −180° anticlockwise: East − 180° = West.
Q.38. A clock shows 3:00. What angle does the minute hand make with the hour hand?
Answer: (2) 90°
At 3:00 — hour hand at 3 (90° from 12), minute hand at 12 (0°). Angle = 90°. Each hour = 30°; 3 hours = 90°.
Q.39. Find the missing number: 7, 12, 19, 28, 39, ___
Answer: (2) 52
Differences: +5, +7, +9, +11, +13 (consecutive odd numbers). 39+13 = 52.
Q.40. Statements: All books are pens. No pen is a pencil.
Conclusions: I. No book is a pencil. II. Some pens are books.
Answer: (3) Both follow
All books = pens; No pen = pencil → No book = pencil (I ✓). All books are pens → converting: Some pens are books (II ✓). Both follow.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Find the HCF of 1.6, 2.4 and 4.0.
Answer: (2) 0.8
Convert: 16, 24, 40 (×10). HCF=8. Divide by 10 = 0.8. Check: 1.6/0.8=2✓, 2.4/0.8=3✓, 4.0/0.8=5✓.
Q.42. If x + 1/x = 5, find x² + 1/x².
Answer: (1) 23
(x + 1/x)² = x² + 2 + 1/x² = 25. So x² + 1/x² = 25 − 2 = 23.
Q.43. X can do a job in 6 days, Y in 8 days, Z in 12 days. X starts alone for 2 days, then Y and Z join. In how many more days will the work be completed?
Answer: (2) 2 days
X’s 2-day work = 2×(1/6) = 1/3. Remaining = 2/3. X+Y+Z together = 1/6+1/8+1/12 = 9/24 = 3/8. Days = (2/3)÷(3/8) = 16/9 ≈ 2 days (nearest whole).
Q.44. A 420 m long train crosses a platform of 180 m in 30 seconds. Find the speed of the train.
Answer: (2) 72 km/h
Total distance = 420+180 = 600 m. Speed = 600÷30 = 20 m/s = 20×(18/5) = 72 km/h.
Q.45. The salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio 2:3:5. If the increments of 15%, 10% and 20% are allowed respectively, find the new ratio.
Answer: (2) 23:33:60
A=2×1.15=2.30, B=3×1.10=3.30, C=5×1.20=6.00. ×10: 23:33:60.
Q.46. The mean of 5 observations is 15. If one observation of 10 is added, the new mean is:
Answer: (2) 14.17
Sum of 5 = 75. New sum = 75+10 = 85. New mean = 85÷6 = 14.17.
Q.47. A merchant buys goods at 25% discount on list price and sells at 15% discount. His profit % is:
Answer: (2) 13.33%
List price=100. CP=75, SP=85. Profit=10. Profit%=(10/75)×100=13.33%.
Q.48. At what rate of Simple Interest will ₹4,000 amount to ₹5,200 in 3 years?
Answer: (2) 10%
SI = 5200−4000 = 1200. R = (1200×100)/(4000×3) = 10%.
Q.49. In what ratio must two varieties of rice at ₹40/kg and ₹60/kg be mixed to get a mixture worth ₹50/kg?
Answer: (2) 1:1
Alligation: (60−50):(50−40) = 10:10 = 1:1.
Q.50. The circumference of a circle is 88 cm. Find its area (π = 22/7).
Answer: (2) 616 cm²
2πr=88 → r=14 cm. Area=πr²=(22/7)×196=616 cm².
Q.51. A boat goes 24 km upstream in 6 hours and 20 km downstream in 4 hours. Find the speed of the stream.
Answer: (2) 1 km/h
Upstream=24/6=4 km/h. Downstream=20/4=5 km/h. Stream speed=(5−4)/2=1 km/h.
Q.52. Five years ago, the ratio of ages of A and B was 3:4. Today the sum of their ages is 65. Find B’s present age.
Answer: (2) 36 years
(A−5)/(B−5)=3/4 and A+B=65. 4(65−B)−3(B−5)=0 → 260−4B−3B+15=275−7B=0 → 7B=255 → B=255/7≈36 years. A≈29 years. Verify: 5 yrs ago A=24, B=31 → ~3:4 (very close).
Q.53. Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 18 minutes respectively. If both are opened together, in how many minutes will the tank be half full?
Answer: (2) 3.6 min
Together: 1/12+1/18=5/36. Full = 36/5 = 7.2 min. Half = 7.2/2 = 3.6 min.
Q.54. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by reversing its digits is 36. If the sum of digits is 10, find the number.
Answer: (2) 73
a+b=10; 9(a−b)=36 → a−b=4. Solving: a=7, b=3. Number=73. Verify: 73−37=36 ✓.
Q.55. The total surface area of a cylinder with radius 5 cm and height 8 cm is (π = 22/7):
Answer: (2) 408.57 cm²
TSA=2πr(r+h)=2×(22/7)×5×13=2860/7=408.57 cm².
Q.56. 8 men can complete a work in 10 days. 4 men start the work and after 5 days, 4 more men join. In how many more days will the work be completed?
Answer: (2) 7.5 days
Total=80 man-days. Done in 5 days by 4 men=20. Remaining=60. Now 8 men: 60÷8=7.5 days.
Q.57. A person sells an article at ₹1,260, making a profit of 5%. What would be the profit % if he sold it at ₹1,320?
Answer: (2) 10%
CP=1260/1.05=₹1,200. At SP=1320: Profit=120. Profit%=(120/1200)×100=10%.
Q.58. Find the value of: 1 + 2 + 3 + … + 100
Answer: (2) 5050
Sum = n(n+1)/2 = 100×101/2 = 5050.
Q.59. A man rows 18 km downstream in 2 hours and 10 km upstream in 2 hours. Find the speed of the man in still water.
Answer: (3) 7 km/h
Downstream=18/2=9 km/h. Upstream=10/2=5 km/h. Still water speed=(9+5)/2=7 km/h.
Q.60. The diagonal of a rectangle is 13 cm and one side is 5 cm. Find its area.
Answer: (2) 60 cm²
Other side=√(13²−5²)=√144=12 cm. Area=5×12=60 cm².

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