📋 MOCK TEST – SET 26
WBSSC Group C (Clerk) Written Exam Preparation
Total: 60 Questions | GA: 20 | English: 10 | Reasoning: 10 | Arithmetic: 20 | Click option to reveal answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. NEP 2020 recommends that by 2025, at least ___% of students in schools should have exposure to vocational education. NEP 2020
Answer: (2) 50%
NEP 2020 targets exposure of at least 50% of learners to vocational education by 2025. Includes internships, skill mapping, integration of local vocations. Moves away from academic–vocational divide.
NEP 2020 targets exposure of at least 50% of learners to vocational education by 2025. Includes internships, skill mapping, integration of local vocations. Moves away from academic–vocational divide.
Q.2. NEP 2020 recommends ‘Multilingual Education’ to be implemented as mother tongue medium of instruction up to at least: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) Class 5, preferably till Class 8
NEP 2020: mother tongue as medium of instruction up to at least Class 5, preferably Class 8. Three-language formula retained. Sanskrit promoted as optional.
NEP 2020: mother tongue as medium of instruction up to at least Class 5, preferably Class 8. Three-language formula retained. Sanskrit promoted as optional.
Q.3. The ‘National Curriculum Framework (NCF) for School Education 2023’ was released by: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) NCERT
NCF-SE 2023 released by NCERT under NEP 2020. Replaces NCF 2005. Focuses on competency-based learning, reduced curriculum load, arts integration, Indian Knowledge Systems.
NCF-SE 2023 released by NCERT under NEP 2020. Replaces NCF 2005. Focuses on competency-based learning, reduced curriculum load, arts integration, Indian Knowledge Systems.
Q.4. Under NEP 2020, the ‘School Quality Assessment and Accreditation Framework (SQAAF)’ is managed by: NEP 2020
Answer: (2) CBSE / State Boards
SQAAF is for self-evaluation and accreditation by State school boards / CBSE. Assesses schools across 6 domains: curriculum, teaching-learning, infrastructure, student outcomes, inclusiveness, governance.
SQAAF is for self-evaluation and accreditation by State school boards / CBSE. Assesses schools across 6 domains: curriculum, teaching-learning, infrastructure, student outcomes, inclusiveness, governance.
Q.5. ‘Article 32’ of the Indian Constitution is known as: Indian Polity
Answer: (1) Heart and Soul of the Constitution
Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) was called the “heart and soul of the Constitution” by Dr B.R. Ambedkar. Allows direct approach to Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Part of FRs itself.
Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies) was called the “heart and soul of the Constitution” by Dr B.R. Ambedkar. Allows direct approach to Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Part of FRs itself.
Q.6. The ‘Indian National Congress’ was founded in: Indian History
Answer: (2) 1885
INC founded 28 December 1885 in Bombay by A.O. Hume. First session president: W.C. Bonnerjee. 72 delegates attended. Initially loyal to British, later became mass movement.
INC founded 28 December 1885 in Bombay by A.O. Hume. First session president: W.C. Bonnerjee. 72 delegates attended. Initially loyal to British, later became mass movement.
Q.7. The ‘Hooghly River’ enters the Bay of Bengal near: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Sagar Island (Gangasagar)
The Hooghly River meets the Bay of Bengal at Sagar Island (Gangasagar), South 24 Parganas. Famous Gangasagar Mela held every Makar Sankranti. Haldia is an inland port on Hooghly.
The Hooghly River meets the Bay of Bengal at Sagar Island (Gangasagar), South 24 Parganas. Famous Gangasagar Mela held every Makar Sankranti. Haldia is an inland port on Hooghly.
Q.8. The process by which water changes from liquid to vapour at temperatures below boiling point is called: Science
Answer: (2) Evaporation
Evaporation = surface phenomenon occurring at all temperatures below boiling point. Faster in hot, dry, windy conditions. Cooling effect (latent heat absorbed). Different from boiling (bulk phenomenon).
Evaporation = surface phenomenon occurring at all temperatures below boiling point. Faster in hot, dry, windy conditions. Cooling effect (latent heat absorbed). Different from boiling (bulk phenomenon).
Q.9. The ‘Regulating Act’ of 1773 was significant because it: Indian History
Answer: (2) First parliamentary control over EIC
Regulating Act 1773: First step of British Parliament to regulate EIC. Created post of Governor-General (Warren Hastings first). Supreme Court in Calcutta (1774).
Regulating Act 1773: First step of British Parliament to regulate EIC. Created post of Governor-General (Warren Hastings first). Supreme Court in Calcutta (1774).
Q.10. The ‘Jal Jeevan Mission’ aims to provide: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Tap water to every rural household
Jal Jeevan Mission (2019): Provide Har Ghar Jal — functional household tap connections to all rural households by 2024. ₹3.6 lakh crore. 19 crore households targeted.
Jal Jeevan Mission (2019): Provide Har Ghar Jal — functional household tap connections to all rural households by 2024. ₹3.6 lakh crore. 19 crore households targeted.
Q.11. The ‘National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)’ was established under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
NHRC established 12 Oct 1993 under Protection of Human Rights Act 1993. Chairperson = retired CJI. Recommendatory body only.
NHRC established 12 Oct 1993 under Protection of Human Rights Act 1993. Chairperson = retired CJI. Recommendatory body only.
Q.12. The ‘Farakka Barrage’ on the Ganga is located in which district of West Bengal? West Bengal
Answer: (1) Murshidabad
Farakka Barrage is in Murshidabad district, WB (near Malda border). Commissioned 1975. Diverts Ganga water into Hooghly to flush Kolkata Port. India–Bangladesh water-sharing dispute.
Farakka Barrage is in Murshidabad district, WB (near Malda border). Commissioned 1975. Diverts Ganga water into Hooghly to flush Kolkata Port. India–Bangladesh water-sharing dispute.
Q.13. India’s first woman Chief Justice of a High Court was: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Justice Leila Seth
Justice Leila Seth became India’s first woman Chief Justice of a High Court (Himachal Pradesh HC, 1991). Justice Fathima Beevi was the first woman SC judge (1989).
Justice Leila Seth became India’s first woman Chief Justice of a High Court (Himachal Pradesh HC, 1991). Justice Fathima Beevi was the first woman SC judge (1989).
Q.14. The ‘Rajya Sabha’ can be dissolved by: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) Cannot be dissolved
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. 1/3 members retire every 2 years. Total 250 members (238 elected + 12 nominated). Only Lok Sabha can be dissolved.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. 1/3 members retire every 2 years. Total 250 members (238 elected + 12 nominated). Only Lok Sabha can be dissolved.
Q.15. The ‘Bishnupur’ town in WB is famous for: West Bengal
Answer: (2) Terracotta temples and Baluchari silk
Bishnupur (Bankura) = terracotta temples (17th–18th century Malla kings), Baluchari silk sarees (GI tagged), Bishnupur gharana of classical music. UNESCO tentative list site.
Bishnupur (Bankura) = terracotta temples (17th–18th century Malla kings), Baluchari silk sarees (GI tagged), Bishnupur gharana of classical music. UNESCO tentative list site.
Q.16. The ‘National Education Policy 1986’ was revised in: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) 1992
NEP 1986 was revised in 1992 (Programme of Action 1992). India had two NEPs: 1968 and 1986 (revised 1992). NEP 2020 replaced both after a 34-year gap.
NEP 1986 was revised in 1992 (Programme of Action 1992). India had two NEPs: 1968 and 1986 (revised 1992). NEP 2020 replaced both after a 34-year gap.
Q.17. ‘Rusting of iron’ is an example of: Science
Answer: (2) Chemical change
Rusting is a chemical (irreversible) change. New substance formed (iron oxide). Requires moisture and oxygen. Electrochemical corrosion process.
Rusting is a chemical (irreversible) change. New substance formed (iron oxide). Requires moisture and oxygen. Electrochemical corrosion process.
Q.18. ‘Article 356’ is related to: Indian Polity
Answer: (2) President’s Rule
Article 356 = State Emergency / President’s Rule. Invoked when state government cannot function per Constitution. S.R. Bommai case (1994) set limits on its use.
Article 356 = State Emergency / President’s Rule. Invoked when state government cannot function per Constitution. S.R. Bommai case (1994) set limits on its use.
Q.19. The ‘Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony’ is given by: West Bengal / Current Affairs
Answer: (2) Government of India
Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony instituted by Government of India on Tagore’s 150th birth anniversary. First awardee: Pandit Ravi Shankar (2012).
Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony instituted by Government of India on Tagore’s 150th birth anniversary. First awardee: Pandit Ravi Shankar (2012).
Q.20. The ‘PM YASASVI’ scheme provides scholarships to students belonging to: Current Affairs
Answer: (2) OBC, EBC and DNT students
PM YASASVI 2023: Scholarships to OBC, EBC and DNT students of Classes 9–12. Entrance test by NTA. ₹75,000–₹1,25,000 per year.
PM YASASVI 2023: Scholarships to OBC, EBC and DNT students of Classes 9–12. Entrance test by NTA. ₹75,000–₹1,25,000 per year.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘FRUGAL’:
Answer: (2) Economical and avoiding waste
Frugal = sparing/economical with money. Synonyms: Thrifty, Prudent, Sparing. Antonyms: Wasteful, Extravagant.
Frugal = sparing/economical with money. Synonyms: Thrifty, Prudent, Sparing. Antonyms: Wasteful, Extravagant.
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘MAGNANIMOUS’:
Answer: (2) Petty and mean-spirited
Magnanimous = generous or forgiving. Antonyms: Petty, Selfish, Mean, Small-minded.
Magnanimous = generous or forgiving. Antonyms: Petty, Selfish, Mean, Small-minded.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Liaison
Liaison — French origin, two ‘i’s: l-i-a-i-s-o-n. Common error: “liason” (missing second ‘i’).
Liaison — French origin, two ‘i’s: l-i-a-i-s-o-n. Common error: “liason” (missing second ‘i’).
Q.24. Fill in the blank: The teacher is proud ________ her students.
Answer: (1) of
Proud of + object. Fixed preposition: “She is proud of her achievements.”
Proud of + object. Fixed preposition: “She is proud of her achievements.”
Q.25. Correct plural of ‘Syllabus’:
Answer: (2) Syllabi / Syllabuses
Latin origin: Syllabus → Syllabi (formal) or Syllabuses (informal). Both accepted. Exams usually prefer “Syllabi”.
Latin origin: Syllabus → Syllabi (formal) or Syllabuses (informal). Both accepted. Exams usually prefer “Syllabi”.
Q.26. Idiom: “Bite the bullet”
Answer: (2) Endure with courage
“Bite the bullet” = tolerate a painful situation with courage. Origin: pre-anaesthesia surgery — patients bit on a bullet to endure pain.
“Bite the bullet” = tolerate a painful situation with courage. Origin: pre-anaesthesia surgery — patients bit on a bullet to endure pain.
Q.27. Choose the correct sentence:
Answer: (2)
Neither of + plural noun → singular verb (“has”). Pronoun = “his” (singular).
Neither of + plural noun → singular verb (“has”). Pronoun = “his” (singular).
Q.28. Change to Indirect Speech: The captain said, “We won the match.”
Answer: (2)
“won” (simple past) → “had won” (past perfect). “We” → “they” (pronoun change for third person).
“won” (simple past) → “had won” (past perfect). “We” → “they” (pronoun change for third person).
Q.29. One word for: A speech given without prior preparation.
Answer: (2) Extempore
Extempore = spoken without preparation. Synonym: Impromptu. Soliloquy = thinking aloud alone; Monologue = long speech by one person.
Extempore = spoken without preparation. Synonym: Impromptu. Soliloquy = thinking aloud alone; Monologue = long speech by one person.
Q.30. Spot the error: “The quality (A) / of the mangoes (B) / were not (C) / good. (D)”
Answer: (3) C — “was not”
Subject = “quality” (singular) → singular verb. “of the mangoes” is a prepositional phrase. “were” → was.
Subject = “quality” (singular) → singular verb. “of the mangoes” is a prepositional phrase. “were” → was.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Odd one out: Pen, Pencil, Eraser, Sharpener, Book
Answer: (1) Book
Pen, Pencil, Eraser, Sharpener are stationery writing instruments/tools. Book is reading material — not a writing instrument.
Pen, Pencil, Eraser, Sharpener are stationery writing instruments/tools. Book is reading material — not a writing instrument.
Q.32. Complete the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ___
Answer: (2) 42
Pattern: n(n+1) — 1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30, 6×7=42.
Pattern: n(n+1) — 1×2=2, 2×3=6, 3×4=12, 4×5=20, 5×6=30, 6×7=42.
Q.33. If ‘PENCIL’ is coded as ‘RGPEKN’, how is ‘PAPER’ coded?
Answer: (1) RCRGT
+2 shift each letter: P+2=R, E+2=G, N+2=P, C+2=E, I+2=K, L+2=N ✓. PAPER: P→R, A→C, P→R, E→G, R→T = RCRGT.
+2 shift each letter: P+2=R, E+2=G, N+2=P, C+2=E, I+2=K, L+2=N ✓. PAPER: P→R, A→C, P→R, E→G, R→T = RCRGT.
Q.34. Complete the series: 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ___
Answer: (2) 34
Fibonacci: each term = sum of two previous. 13+21 = 34.
Fibonacci: each term = sum of two previous. 13+21 = 34.
Q.35. Ravi is the son of Ajay. Ajay’s mother is Sunita. Sunita’s husband is Ram. How is Ram related to Ravi?
Answer: (3) Grandfather
Ravi → son of Ajay. Ajay’s mother = Sunita. Sunita’s husband = Ram = Ajay’s father. So Ram is Ravi’s grandfather.
Ravi → son of Ajay. Ajay’s mother = Sunita. Sunita’s husband = Ram = Ajay’s father. So Ram is Ravi’s grandfather.
Q.36. In a class, Priya is 8th from the front and 16th from the back. How many students are in the class?
Answer: (2) 23
Total = 8 + 16 − 1 = 23.
Total = 8 + 16 − 1 = 23.
Q.37. Priya walks 8 km West, then 6 km North. How far is she from the starting point?
Answer: (2) 10 km
Pythagoras: √(8²+6²) = √(64+36) = √100 = 10 km.
Pythagoras: √(8²+6²) = √(64+36) = √100 = 10 km.
Q.38. A month starts on Monday. Which day will the 25th of that month be?
Answer: (4) Thursday
Day 1 = Monday. Day 25 = Day 1 + 24 days. 24 mod 7 = 3. Monday + 3 days = Thursday. (Mon→Tue→Wed→Thu).
Day 1 = Monday. Day 25 = Day 1 + 24 days. 24 mod 7 = 3. Monday + 3 days = Thursday. (Mon→Tue→Wed→Thu).
Q.39. Find the missing number: 8, 27, 64, 125, ___
Answer: (2) 216
Perfect cubes: 2³=8, 3³=27, 4³=64, 5³=125, 6³=216.
Perfect cubes: 2³=8, 3³=27, 4³=64, 5³=125, 6³=216.
Q.40. Statements: All roses are flowers. Some flowers are red.
Conclusions: I. Some roses are red. II. All flowers are roses.
Conclusions: I. Some roses are red. II. All flowers are roses.
Answer: (4) Neither I nor II follows
I: Roses may or may not be among the “some red flowers”. II: Clearly false — converse of “All roses are flowers” is not “All flowers are roses”. Neither follows.
I: Roses may or may not be among the “some red flowers”. II: Clearly false — converse of “All roses are flowers” is not “All flowers are roses”. Neither follows.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 12 and 180. If one number is 36, find the other.
Answer: (2) 60
Product = HCF × LCM → 36 × other = 12 × 180 = 2160. Other = 2160 ÷ 36 = 60.
Product = HCF × LCM → 36 × other = 12 × 180 = 2160. Other = 2160 ÷ 36 = 60.
Q.42. Simplify: (25 × 4 – 8 ÷ 2) + 3²
Answer: (2) 105
BODMAS: 8÷2=4; 25×4=100; 3²=9. (100−4)+9 = 96+9 = 105.
BODMAS: 8÷2=4; 25×4=100; 3²=9. (100−4)+9 = 96+9 = 105.
Q.43. Pipe A fills a tank in 16 min. Pipe B fills in 24 min. Pipe C empties in 12 min. If all three are opened, how long to fill the empty tank?
Answer: (1) 48 min
Net rate = 1/16 + 1/24 − 1/12 = (3+2−4)/48 = 1/48. Time = 48 min.
Net rate = 1/16 + 1/24 − 1/12 = (3+2−4)/48 = 1/48. Time = 48 min.
Q.44. A train 240 m long crosses a platform 360 m long at 72 km/h. Time taken?
Answer: (2) 30 sec
Speed = 72 km/h = 20 m/s. Distance = 240+360 = 600 m. Time = 600÷20 = 30 sec.
Speed = 72 km/h = 20 m/s. Distance = 240+360 = 600 m. Time = 600÷20 = 30 sec.
Q.45. Divide ₹7,200 among A, B, C in the ratio 3:4:5. Find C’s share.
Answer: (2) ₹3,000
Total parts = 12. One part = 7200÷12 = 600. C’s share (5 parts) = 5×600 = ₹3,000.
Total parts = 12. One part = 7200÷12 = 600. C’s share (5 parts) = 5×600 = ₹3,000.
Q.46. The average marks of 30 students is 55. If 5 more students with an average of 45 are added, new average is:
Answer: (4) 53
Total old = 30×55 = 1650. New total = 1650 + 5×45 = 1875. New avg = 1875÷35 = 53.57 ≈ 53.
Total old = 30×55 = 1650. New total = 1650 + 5×45 = 1875. New avg = 1875÷35 = 53.57 ≈ 53.
Q.47. A trader marks goods at 20% above CP and allows a 10% discount. His profit % is:
Answer: (2) 8%
CP=100. MP=120. SP=120×0.9=108. Profit=8%. 8%.
CP=100. MP=120. SP=120×0.9=108. Profit=8%. 8%.
Q.48. Find Simple Interest on ₹12,000 at 8% per annum for 3 years.
Answer: (2) ₹2,880
SI = P×R×T÷100 = 12000×8×3÷100 = ₹2,880.
SI = P×R×T÷100 = 12000×8×3÷100 = ₹2,880.
Q.49. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. Net change?
Answer: (2) 4% decrease
Net change = −(R²/100) = −(400/100) = −4%. E.g.: 100→120→96. Net = −4%.
Net change = −(R²/100) = −(400/100) = −4%. E.g.: 100→120→96. Net = −4%.
Q.50. The diagonal of a square is 10√2 cm. Its area is:
Answer: (2) 100 cm²
Area = d²/2 = (10√2)²/2 = 200/2 = 100 cm². Or: side = d/√2 = 10, Area = 10² = 100 cm².
Area = d²/2 = (10√2)²/2 = 200/2 = 100 cm². Or: side = d/√2 = 10, Area = 10² = 100 cm².
Q.51. A 300 m train and a 200 m train run in opposite directions at 60 km/h and 90 km/h. Time to cross each other?
Answer: (2) 12 sec
Relative speed = 150 km/h = 125/3 m/s. Total length = 500 m. Time = 500÷(125/3) = 12 sec.
Relative speed = 150 km/h = 125/3 m/s. Total length = 500 m. Time = 500÷(125/3) = 12 sec.
Q.52. The sum of ages of A and B is 50 years. 5 years ago, the ratio was 3:2. Find present age of A.
Answer: (2) 30 years
A+B=50. (A−5)/(B−5)=3/2 → 2A−3B=−5. Solving: A=30 years, B=20 years.
A+B=50. (A−5)/(B−5)=3/2 → 2A−3B=−5. Solving: A=30 years, B=20 years.
Q.53. A cistern can be filled in 9 hours. Due to a leakage in the bottom, it takes 10 hours. How long will the leak empty the full cistern?
Answer: (2) 90 hours
Leak rate = 1/9 − 1/10 = 1/90. Leak empties in 90 hours.
Leak rate = 1/9 − 1/10 = 1/90. Leak empties in 90 hours.
Q.54. The ratio of present ages of P and Q is 5:4. Eight years ago, ratio was 3:2. Find present age of P.
Answer: (2) 20 years
P=5x, Q=4x. (5x−8)/(4x−8)=3/2 → 10x−16=12x−24 → x=4. P=5×4=20 years.
P=5x, Q=4x. (5x−8)/(4x−8)=3/2 → 10x−16=12x−24 → x=4. P=5×4=20 years.
Q.55. A right circular cone has radius 7 cm and height 24 cm. Its slant height is:
Answer: (2) 25 cm
l = √(r²+h²) = √(49+576) = √625 = 25 cm.
l = √(r²+h²) = √(49+576) = √625 = 25 cm.
Q.56. 20 men can build a wall in 15 days. After 5 days, 5 men leave. In how many more days will the remaining men complete the wall?
Answer: (2) 13.33 days
Total work=300 man-days. Done=100. Remaining=200. Workers=15. Days=200÷15=13.33 days.
Total work=300 man-days. Done=100. Remaining=200. Workers=15. Days=200÷15=13.33 days.
Q.57. If the cost price of 12 articles equals the selling price of 10 articles, the profit percentage is:
Answer: (2) 20%
CP of 12 = SP of 10. CP per article=10, SP per article=12. Profit=2. Profit%=(2/10)×100=20%.
CP of 12 = SP of 10. CP per article=10, SP per article=12. Profit=2. Profit%=(2/10)×100=20%.
Q.58. Find the smallest number divisible by 4, 6, 8, 12, and 15.
Answer: (2) 120
LCM: 4=2²; 6=2×3; 8=2³; 12=2²×3; 15=3×5. LCM = 2³×3×5 = 120.
LCM: 4=2²; 6=2×3; 8=2³; 12=2²×3; 15=3×5. LCM = 2³×3×5 = 120.
Q.59. A man bought a cycle for ₹1,400 and spent ₹300 on repairs. He sold it for ₹2,100. Profit %?
Answer: (2) 23.53%
Total CP = 1400+300 = 1700. SP = 2100. Profit = 400. Profit% = (400/1700)×100 = 23.53%.
Total CP = 1400+300 = 1700. SP = 2100. Profit = 400. Profit% = (400/1700)×100 = 23.53%.
Q.60. The volume of a sphere of radius 6 cm is (π = 22/7):
Answer: (2) 905.14 cm³
V = (4/3)πr³ = (4/3)×(22/7)×216 = 19008/21 = 905.14 cm³.
V = (4/3)πr³ = (4/3)×(22/7)×216 = 19008/21 = 905.14 cm³.