WBSSC Group C & D Mock Test – Set 5
General Awareness – 50 Questions
Instructions: Click on any option to view the correct answer and detailed explanation
Total Questions: 50 | Topics: History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science & Current Affairs
Question 1
Which Veda is considered the oldest?
Correct Answer: B) Rig Veda
π Detailed Explanation
The Rig Veda is the oldest of the four Vedas and one of the oldest religious texts in the world, composed around 1500-1200 BCE. It contains 1,028 hymns (suktas) organized into 10 Mandalas (books). These hymns are primarily prayers and praises addressed to various deities like Indra, Agni, Varuna, and Soma. The Rig Veda provides valuable insights into early Vedic society, religion, and culture. It was originally composed in Vedic Sanskrit and transmitted orally through generations before being written down. The other three Vedas – Yajurveda (dealing with sacrificial formulas), Samaveda (musical chants), and Atharvaveda (spells and charms) – were composed later and drew heavily from the Rig Veda. The Rig Veda is considered the foundation of Hindu philosophy and has influenced Indian culture for millennia.
Question 2
The Purusha Sukta related to the Varna System is originally found in:
Correct Answer: C) Rig Veda
π Detailed Explanation
The Purusha Sukta is found in the 10th Mandala of the Rig Veda (Hymn 10.90). It describes the sacrifice of the cosmic being Purusha and relates it to the origin of the four varnas (social classes). According to this hymn, the Brahmanas (priests) were born from Purusha’s mouth, the Kshatriyas (warriors) from his arms, the Vaishyas (merchants and farmers) from his thighs, and the Shudras (laborers) from his feet. This is the earliest reference to the varna system in Vedic literature. The Purusha Sukta also describes the creation of the universe from different parts of Purusha’s body, establishing a cosmic connection between social order and universal order. While the varna system became more rigid over time, the Purusha Sukta represents its early conceptual foundation in Vedic thought.
Question 3
How many hymns are there in the Rig Veda?
Correct Answer: A) 1028
π Detailed Explanation
The Rig Veda contains exactly 1,028 hymns (suktas) divided into 10 Mandalas (books) comprising 10,600 verses. The hymns vary in length from a few verses to over 50 verses. Books 2 through 7 are considered the oldest and are called the family books as they are attributed to specific sage families – Gritsamada, Vishvamitra, Vamadeva, Atri, Bharadvaja, and Vasishtha. Books 1, 8, 9, and 10 were added later. The 9th Mandala is entirely dedicated to Soma (the sacred drink). The 10th Mandala contains philosophical hymns including the famous Nasadiya Sukta (Hymn of Creation) and Purusha Sukta. The largest number of hymns is dedicated to Indra (about 250 hymns), followed by Agni. The Rig Veda’s hymns were composed by various rishis (sages) and were preserved through oral tradition with remarkable accuracy for thousands of years.
Question 4
Which Mandala of the Rig Veda is completely dedicated to Soma?
Correct Answer: C) Ninth Mandala
π Detailed Explanation
The Ninth Mandala of the Rig Veda is entirely dedicated to Soma and contains 114 hymns. Soma was a sacred drink used in Vedic rituals, prepared from the juice of a plant (possibly Ephedra or a species of milkweed). The drink had intoxicating properties and was consumed during religious ceremonies. Soma was personified as a deity and was considered the king of plants and the drink of immortality. The hymns describe the preparation, purification, and offering of Soma, as well as its effects on those who consumed it. Soma was believed to grant strength, inspiration, and communion with the gods. The Ninth Mandala praises Soma’s purifying journey through woolen filters, comparing it to a bull bellowing or a swift horse. Indra was particularly fond of Soma and many hymns describe how he drank Soma before performing heroic deeds like slaying Vritra.
Question 5
Upanishads are books on:
Correct Answer: D) Philosophy
π Detailed Explanation
The Upanishads are philosophical texts that form the foundation of Hindu philosophy and are considered the end part (Vedanta) of the Vedas. There are over 200 Upanishads, though 13 are considered principal (Mukhya Upanishads). They were composed between 800-200 BCE. The word Upanishad means “sitting down near” (a teacher), suggesting they contain secret teachings passed from guru to disciple. The Upanishads explore profound philosophical concepts like Brahman (ultimate reality), Atman (individual soul), the relationship between Atman and Brahman, karma, moksha (liberation), and rebirth. Famous Upanishads include Brihadaranyaka, Chandogya, Isha, Kena, Katha, Mundaka, and Mandukya. They contain dialogues and discussions between sages and seekers. The mahavakyas (great sayings) like “Tat Tvam Asi” (Thou Art That) and “Aham Brahmasmi” (I am Brahman) come from the Upanishads. They represent a shift from ritualistic Vedic religion to philosophical inquiry.
Question 6
The famous dialogue between Nachiketa and Yama is mentioned in:
Correct Answer: C) Katha Upanishad
π Detailed Explanation
The Katha Upanishad contains the famous dialogue between Nachiketa, a young Brahmin boy, and Yama, the god of death. According to the story, Nachiketa’s father, Vajashrava, performed a sacrifice where he gave away all his possessions. Nachiketa asked his father to whom he would give him, and in anger, the father said “to Death.” Being obedient, Nachiketa went to Yama’s abode. Yama was absent for three days, and when he returned, he offered Nachiketa three boons as compensation. For his third boon, Nachiketa asked about what happens after death and the nature of the Atman. Yama initially tried to dissuade him with worldly temptations but finally, impressed by Nachiketa’s determination, revealed the highest spiritual knowledge about the immortal Self, Atman, and how to attain liberation. This dialogue is considered one of the most profound philosophical teachings in Indian literature.
Question 7
Gautama Buddha was born at:
Correct Answer: B) Lumbini
π Detailed Explanation
Gautama Buddha was born at Lumbini (in present-day Nepal) around 563 BCE. He was born as Prince Siddhartha Gautama to King Shuddhodana of the Shakya clan and Queen Mahamaya. According to tradition, Queen Mahamaya was traveling to her parental home when she gave birth to the prince in the Lumbini garden under a sal tree. The site is marked by the Ashoka Pillar erected by Emperor Ashoka in 249 BCE during his pilgrimage to Buddhist holy sites. The pillar inscription confirms Lumbini as Buddha’s birthplace. Lumbini is one of the four main Buddhist pilgrimage sites (along with Bodh Gaya, Sarnath, and Kushinagar). It has been recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1997. The Maya Devi Temple stands at the exact spot of Buddha’s birth. Though Kapilavastu was where Buddha spent his childhood and youth, Lumbini is his actual birthplace.
Question 8
Buddha attained enlightenment at:
Correct Answer: B) Bodh Gaya
π Detailed Explanation
Gautama Buddha attained enlightenment (Nirvana/Bodhi) at Bodh Gaya in Bihar around 528 BCE at the age of 35. After leaving his palace and family, Siddhartha practiced severe asceticism for six years but realized it wasn’t the path to liberation. He then sat under a peepal tree (later called the Bodhi Tree) on the banks of the Niranjana River (Phalgu River) and vowed not to rise until he attained enlightenment. After meditating for 49 days, he achieved supreme knowledge and understanding of the Four Noble Truths and the nature of suffering. The spot where he meditated is marked by the Mahabodhi Temple, a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The original Bodhi Tree no longer exists, but its descendant grows at the same site. The current tree is said to be a cutting from a sapling of the original tree that was sent to Sri Lanka in the 3rd century BCE by Emperor Ashoka’s daughter Sanghamitta.
Question 9
Buddha gave his first sermon at:
Correct Answer: B) Sarnath
π Detailed Explanation
Buddha gave his first sermon at Sarnath (near Varanasi) in the Deer Park (Mrigadava) around 528 BCE. This event is known as Dharmachakra Pravartana (Turning of the Wheel of Dharma). After attaining enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, Buddha traveled to Sarnath to teach his former five companions who had practiced asceticism with him. In this first sermon, he expounded the Four Noble Truths (existence of suffering, cause of suffering, cessation of suffering, and the path leading to cessation) and the Middle Path (avoiding extremes of luxury and asceticism). He also taught the Noble Eightfold Path. This sermon marked the beginning of Buddha’s teaching mission that lasted 45 years. Sarnath became an important Buddhist center with monasteries and stupas. Emperor Ashoka erected a magnificent pillar here topped with four lions (now India’s national emblem). The Dhamek Stupa at Sarnath marks the spot of the first sermon.
Question 10
Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at:
Correct Answer: A) Kushinagar
π Detailed Explanation
Gautama Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana (final passing away) at Kushinagar (in present-day Uttar Pradesh) in 483 BCE at the age of 80. He died in the territory of the Malla Republic. According to Buddhist texts, Buddha fell ill after eating a meal offered by a blacksmith named Chunda. Realizing his end was near, he asked his disciples to prepare a couch between two sal trees. He lay down on his right side in the lion’s posture and gave his final teachings, telling his disciples: “All conditioned things are subject to decay. Strive with diligence for your liberation.” After passing away, his body was cremated and the relics were divided among eight kingdoms including Magadha, Vaishali, Kapilavastu, and others, where stupas were built to enshrine them. The Mahaparinirvana Temple and Ramabhar Stupa in Kushinagar mark this sacred site. Kushinagar is one of the four main Buddhist pilgrimage sites.
Question 11
The First Buddhist Council was held at:
Correct Answer: C) Rajgir
π Detailed Explanation
The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajgriha (modern Rajgir) in Bihar around 483 BCE, shortly after Buddha’s Mahaparinirvana. It was convened by Mahakashyapa and presided over by him with the support of King Ajatashatru of Magadha. The council was held in the Saptaparni Cave on the Vaibhara Hill. About 500 arhats (enlightened monks) participated. The main objective was to preserve Buddha’s teachings and compile them systematically. Ananda, Buddha’s personal attendant, recited all the Suttas (discourses), and Upali recited the Vinaya (monastic rules). These were collectively agreed upon and became the foundation of the Buddhist scriptures. The council aimed to prevent any distortion or misinterpretation of Buddha’s teachings. This marked the beginning of the organized preservation of Buddhist doctrine. The council lasted for seven months and successfully compiled the Dhamma and Vinaya.
Question 12
Mahavira Jain was born at:
Correct Answer: A) Kundagrama
π Detailed Explanation
Mahavira, the 24th and last Tirthankara of Jainism, was born at Kundagrama (also called Kundalpur) near Vaishali in Bihar around 599 BCE. He was born as Vardhamana to King Siddhartha and Queen Trishala of the Jnatri clan, which was part of the Lichchhavi Republic. Kundagrama was a suburb of Vaishali, an important center of the Vajji confederacy. Mahavira’s birth is celebrated as Mahavir Jayanti. At the age of 30, he renounced worldly life and became an ascetic. For 12 years, he practiced severe penance and meditation, and at age 42, he attained Kevala Jnana (supreme knowledge) under a sal tree on the bank of River Rijupalika near Jrimbhikagrama. He then spent 30 years traveling and preaching Jain philosophy. Mahavira died at Pavapuri near Rajgir at the age of 72 around 527 BCE, attaining Nirvana. His teachings emphasized non-violence, truth, and asceticism.
Question 13
Who was the first Tirthankara of Jainism?
Correct Answer: B) Rishabhanath
π Detailed Explanation
Rishabhanath (also called Rishabhadeva or Adinatha) was the first Tirthankara of Jainism out of 24 Tirthankaras. According to Jain tradition, he lived millions of years ago and was the founder of Jainism in the present cosmic cycle. He is believed to have taught humanity various arts and skills including writing, pottery, painting, and sculpture, marking the transition from a primitive to a civilized society. His symbol is the bull. Rishabhanath had 100 sons, including the famous Bharata Chakravarti (after whom India is called Bharata) and Bahubali (Gomateshwara). The famous Gomateshwara statue at Shravanabelagola in Karnataka depicts Bahubali. Rishabhanath is mentioned in Hindu texts like the Bhagavata Purana as well. Parshvanath was the 23rd Tirthankara, and Mahavira was the 24th and last Tirthankara. Each Tirthankara is considered a ford-maker who helps souls cross the ocean of worldly existence to achieve liberation.
Question 14
The doctrine of Three Jewels (Triratna) belongs to:
Correct Answer: C) Jainism
π Detailed Explanation
The doctrine of Three Jewels (Triratna or Ratnatraya) is the crowning glory of Jainism and consists of Right Faith (Samyak Darshana), Right Knowledge (Samyak Jnana), and Right Conduct (Samyak Charitra). These three together form the path to liberation (moksha) in Jainism. Right Faith means believing in the true nature of reality as taught by Tirthankaras. Right Knowledge means understanding the fundamental principles of Jain philosophy including the nine tattvas (categories of reality). Right Conduct means practicing the five great vows (Mahavratas): non-violence (Ahimsa), truthfulness (Satya), non-stealing (Asteya), celibacy (Brahmacharya), and non-possession (Aparigraha). These three must be practiced together as they are interdependent. Without right faith, one cannot acquire right knowledge; without right knowledge, one cannot practice right conduct. Buddhism also has Three Jewels, but they refer to Buddha, Dhamma, and Sangha, which are different from the Jain concept.
Question 15
Ajivika sect was founded by:
Correct Answer: C) Makkhali Gosala
π Detailed Explanation
The Ajivika sect was founded by Makkhali Gosala in the 5th century BCE, making him a contemporary of Mahavira and Buddha. Gosala was initially a disciple of Mahavira but later separated to establish his own sect. The Ajivikas believed in Niyati (fate or destiny) as the supreme power controlling everything. According to their philosophy, everything in the universe is predetermined, and human effort has no role in changing one’s destiny. They practiced severe asceticism and nudity like Jain monks. The sect denied free will and believed that all beings must pass through a fixed number of rebirths before attaining salvation, regardless of their actions. This fatalistic philosophy was opposed by both Buddhism and Jainism, which emphasized karma and personal effort. The Ajivikas received royal patronage from Emperor Ashoka’s grandson Dasharatha, who dedicated the Barabar Caves in Bihar to them. The sect gradually declined and disappeared by the 14th century CE.
Question 16
The founder of Maurya Dynasty was:
Correct Answer: A) Chandragupta Maurya
π Detailed Explanation
Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Dynasty around 321 BCE after overthrowing the last Nanda king, Dhana Nanda. With the help of his mentor and chief advisor Chanakya (also known as Kautilya or Vishnugupta), he established one of the largest empires in Indian history. Chandragupta first consolidated his power in northwestern India and then captured Magadha. He defeated Seleucus Nicator, one of Alexander’s generals who controlled parts of northwest India and Afghanistan, around 305 BCE. After the victory, a treaty was signed where Seleucus ceded territories (including parts of Afghanistan, Balochistan, and eastern Iran) in exchange for 500 war elephants. Seleucus also sent Megasthenes as his ambassador to Chandragupta’s court at Pataliputra. Chandragupta ruled for about 24 years and established an efficient administrative system described in Kautilya’s Arthashastra. According to Jain tradition, he abdicated the throne, became a Jain monk, and died at Shravanabelagola around 297 BCE.
Question 17
Who wrote the ‘Arthashastra’?
Correct Answer: B) Kautilya
π Detailed Explanation
Arthashastra was written by Kautilya, also known as Chanakya or Vishnugupta, who was the chief advisor and mentor of Chandragupta Maurya. Composed around 321-296 BCE, it is one of the greatest works on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy in ancient India. The text is divided into 15 books (Adhikaranas) containing 150 chapters and 180 sections, covering topics like governance, law, diplomacy, war, espionage, taxation, agriculture, trade, and administration. Often compared to Machiavelli’s “The Prince,” Arthashastra provides detailed instructions on how a king should rule, maintain power, and expand territory. It advocates a pragmatic and sometimes ruthless approach to politics. The text discusses the Saptanga theory of state (seven organs of state), the Mandala theory of interstate relations, and various revenue collection methods. Rediscovered in 1905 by R. Shamasastry, Arthashastra provides invaluable insights into Mauryan administration and society.
Question 18
Megasthenes visited India during the reign of:
Correct Answer: A) Chandragupta Maurya
π Detailed Explanation
Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya at Pataliputra around 302 BCE. He stayed in India for several years and wrote a detailed account of his experiences in a book called ‘Indica,’ which unfortunately has not survived in its entirety but is known through quotations and references in the works of later Greek historians like Strabo, Arrian, and Diodorus. Indica provides valuable information about Mauryan administration, society, economy, and geography. Megasthenes described Pataliputra as a magnificent city with wooden walls and watchtowers, a seven-caste social system, the splendor of Chandragupta’s palace, and the efficient administration. He mentioned that slavery didn’t exist in India (though this has been debated). His account also describes Indian flora, fauna, climate, and customs. Though some of his descriptions contain exaggerations and inaccuracies, Indica remains one of the most important foreign sources for understanding ancient India.
Question 19
The Kalinga War was fought in which year?
Correct Answer: B) 261 BCE
π Detailed Explanation
The Kalinga War was fought around 261 BCE between Emperor Ashoka and the state of Kalinga (modern-day Odisha). This was the only major war Ashoka fought during his reign and proved to be a turning point in his life. The war was extremely bloody, with massive casualties on both sides. According to Rock Edict XIII, 100,000 people were killed, 150,000 were taken prisoners, and many more died from famine and disease. The immense suffering and bloodshed deeply affected Ashoka, filling him with remorse and guilt. Witnessing the horrors of war, he underwent a profound transformation and embraced Buddhism. After the war, he adopted the policy of Dhamma (righteousness) and renounced armed conquest in favor of Dhamma-vijaya (conquest through righteousness). He became a patron of Buddhism, sent missionaries across Asia, built stupas and pillars, and promoted non-violence, religious tolerance, and welfare. The Kalinga War thus marks the beginning of one of the most remarkable transformations in history.
Question 20
Ashoka’s inscriptions were first deciphered by:
Correct Answer: D) James Prinsep
π Detailed Explanation
James Prinsep, a British scholar and antiquary, successfully deciphered Ashoka’s Brahmi script inscriptions in 1837. This was a breakthrough moment in understanding ancient Indian history. Prinsep was the Assay Master at the Calcutta Mint and secretary of the Asiatic Society of Bengal. By studying coins and inscriptions, he cracked the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts. His decipherment revealed that the inscriptions mentioning “Devanampiya Piyadassi” (Beloved of the Gods) referred to King Ashoka, confirmed later by inscriptions at Maski and Gujarra that mentioned his name explicitly. Before Prinsep’s work, Ashoka’s edicts were merely considered curious stone inscriptions. His decipherment opened a window into Mauryan history, Buddhist expansion, and Ashoka’s dhamma policy. Prinsep’s method involved comparing various inscriptions and using bilingual coins. His work laid the foundation for Indian epigraphy and paleography. Tragically, he suffered a mental breakdown and died young in 1840 in England.
Question 21
Which Indian state has the largest area?
Correct Answer: B) Rajasthan
π Detailed Explanation
Rajasthan is the largest state in India by area, covering 342,239 square kilometers, which is about 10.4% of India’s total geographical area. It is located in the northwestern part of India and is known for its vast Thar Desert (Great Indian Desert), which covers about 60% of the state. Rajasthan shares an international border with Pakistan and domestic borders with Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat. Despite its large size, much of Rajasthan is arid or semi-arid. The state has a rich cultural heritage with magnificent forts, palaces, and havelis. Major cities include Jaipur (the capital, known as Pink City), Jodhpur (Blue City), Udaipur (City of Lakes), and Jaisalmer (Golden City). After Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh is the second-largest state (308,245 sq km), followed by Maharashtra (307,713 sq km). Goa is the smallest state by area (3,702 sq km).
Question 22
Which mountain range separates India from China?
Correct Answer: C) Himalayas
π Detailed Explanation
The Himalayan mountain range forms a natural barrier between India and China (Tibet region). The Himalayas stretch for about 2,400 km across northern India, separating the Indian subcontinent from the Tibetan Plateau. The word “Himalaya” comes from Sanskrit meaning “abode of snow.” This young fold mountain range was formed about 50 million years ago due to the collision between the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates. The Himalayas contain some of the world’s highest peaks including Mount Everest (8,849 m), Kanchenjunga (8,586 m, India’s highest peak), and many others above 7,000 m. The range is divided into three parallel ranges: the Greater Himalayas (Himadri), Middle Himalayas (Himachal), and Outer Himalayas (Shiwaliks). The Himalayas are the source of major river systems including the Indus, Ganges, and Brahmaputra. They play a crucial role in India’s climate by blocking cold Central Asian winds and trapping monsoon clouds.
Question 23
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
Correct Answer: C) 8
π Detailed Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer (23Β°30’N latitude) passes through 8 Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. It divides India into almost two equal parts – the northern temperate zone and the southern tropical zone. The Tropic of Cancer marks the northernmost latitude where the sun can appear directly overhead at noon (during the summer solstice around June 21). Places located on or south of this line experience the sun directly overhead at least once a year. The line passes through the city of Udaipur in Rajasthan and near Ranchi in Jharkhand. The division created by the Tropic of Cancer influences India’s climate patterns, with regions south of it experiencing more consistent tropical conditions throughout the year. Understanding this geographical feature is important for agriculture, climate studies, and solar energy potential assessment across different regions of India.
Question 24
The Indian monsoon is caused by:
Correct Answer: C) Differential heating of land and sea
π Detailed Explanation
The Indian monsoon is primarily caused by differential heating of land and sea, which creates a pressure difference. During summer (June-September), the Indian landmass heats up faster than the surrounding Indian Ocean, creating a low-pressure area over land. The relatively cooler ocean has high pressure. This pressure gradient causes moisture-laden winds to blow from the high-pressure ocean toward the low-pressure land, bringing heavy rainfall. This is the Southwest Monsoon. During winter (December-February), the process reverses – the land cools faster creating high pressure, while the ocean remains warmer with low pressure, causing winds to blow from land to sea (Northeast Monsoon), which is generally dry except in southeastern coast. Other factors like the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), Tibetan Plateau heating, and El NiΓ±o Southern Oscillation also influence monsoon behavior. The monsoon is crucial for Indian agriculture as about 70% of annual rainfall occurs during the monsoon season, irrigating crops across the country.
Question 25
Which soil is most suitable for cotton cultivation?
Correct Answer: C) Black soil
π Detailed Explanation
Black soil, also known as Regur soil or Black Cotton Soil, is most suitable for cotton cultivation. This soil is formed from the weathering of volcanic basalt rocks and is predominantly found in the Deccan Plateau, covering parts of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. Black soil is rich in iron, lime, aluminum, and magnesium but deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter. Its most important characteristic is its ability to retain moisture for long periods due to its clay content and self-plowing property (develops cracks when dry, which allows natural aeration). The dark color comes from titaniferous magnetite and humus. Black soil is ideal for cotton because it provides excellent moisture retention during dry spells, which cotton plants need. Besides cotton, it’s also suitable for growing jowar, wheat, linseed, gram, and sugarcane. Maharashtra is India’s largest cotton-producing state, largely due to its extensive black soil cover.
Question 26
The President of India can be removed from office by:
Correct Answer: B) Impeachment
π Detailed Explanation
The President of India can be removed from office only through impeachment as per Article 61 of the Constitution. The impeachment process can be initiated in either House of Parliament on charges of “violation of the Constitution.” The process requires: (1) A written notice signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of that House, (2) The charges must be passed by a resolution with a two-thirds majority of the total membership of that House, (3) The other House then investigates the charges, and the President has the right to defend himself, (4) If the investigating House also passes the resolution with a two-thirds majority, the President stands removed from office. This is a lengthy and difficult process designed to protect the President from arbitrary removal. No Indian President has ever been impeached, though an impeachment motion was initiated against President K.R. Narayanan in 1999 but was withdrawn. The President holds office for five years and can be re-elected.
Question 27
How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
Correct Answer: D) 12
π Detailed Explanation
The President of India can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) under Article 80 of the Constitution. These nominated members must be persons with special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service. This provision ensures that eminent personalities who may not win elections but have made significant contributions to society can participate in the legislative process. Some famous nominated members include Sachin Tendulkar, Lata Mangeshkar, M.S. Swaminathan, Mary Kom, and various artists, scientists, and social workers. The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members, of which 238 are elected representatives from states and union territories, and 12 are nominated by the President. Members of Rajya Sabha serve for six years, with one-third retiring every two years. Similarly, the President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha, though this provision lapsed in 2020.
Question 28
The maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
Correct Answer: C) 552
π Detailed Explanation
According to Article 81 of the Indian Constitution, the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) is 552 members. This includes: (1) up to 530 members representing states, (2) up to 20 members representing union territories, and (3) up to 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community nominated by the President if he feels the community is not adequately represented. However, the Anglo-Indian nomination provision lapsed in January 2020 after the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act. Currently, the Lok Sabha has 543 elected members – 530 from states and 13 from union territories. Members are elected through direct elections based on universal adult franchise. The term of Lok Sabha is five years unless dissolved earlier. Lok Sabha is more powerful than Rajya Sabha, especially in money matters and no-confidence motions. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over its sessions. The current 17th Lok Sabha was elected in 2019.
Question 29
Which article of the Constitution deals with the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Correct Answer: C) Article 32
π Detailed Explanation
Article 32 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, which Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called the “heart and soul of the Constitution.” This article empowers citizens to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of their Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35). If any Fundamental Right is violated, a person can directly petition the Supreme Court, which has the power to issue writs for their enforcement. The five types of writs are: (1) Habeas Corpus (to produce a person before court), (2) Mandamus (to compel performance of public duty), (3) Prohibition (to prevent lower courts from exceeding jurisdiction), (4) Certiorari (to quash orders of lower courts), and (5) Quo Warranto (to inquire into legitimacy of a person’s claim to public office). Article 32 cannot be suspended except during a National Emergency. Article 226 provides similar powers to High Courts, but Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right. This article ensures that Fundamental Rights are not merely theoretical but can be practically enforced.
Question 30
The concept of Judicial Review in India has been borrowed from:
Correct Answer: B) USA
π Detailed Explanation
The concept of Judicial Review in India has been borrowed from the United States Constitution. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders. In the USA, this doctrine was established in the landmark case Marbury vs. Madison (1803). Though not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution, Judicial Review is implicit in various articles. Article 13 declares laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights void. Articles 32 and 226 empower the Supreme Court and High Courts to issue writs. Article 137 gives the Supreme Court power to review its own judgments. The scope of Judicial Review in India includes: (1) Judicial Review of constitutional amendments (within limits set by the Basic Structure doctrine established in Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973), (2) Review of legislative actions, and (3) Review of executive/administrative actions. However, courts cannot review political questions. Judicial Review ensures checks and balances, protects Fundamental Rights, and maintains constitutional supremacy.
Question 31
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures:
Correct Answer: C) Total value of goods and services produced in a country
π Detailed Explanation
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country’s geographical boundaries during a specific period, usually a year or quarter. It is the most comprehensive measure of a nation’s overall economic activity and health. GDP includes consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports (exports minus imports), expressed as: GDP = C + I + G + (X-M). India’s GDP is calculated at both current prices (Nominal GDP) and constant prices (Real GDP, adjusted for inflation). Real GDP provides a better measure of actual economic growth. GDP can be calculated by three methods: Production/Value Added Method, Income Method, and Expenditure Method. As of 2025, India is the world’s fifth-largest economy by nominal GDP. However, GDP has limitations – it doesn’t measure income inequality, environmental degradation, or informal economy activities. Per Capita GDP (GDP divided by population) indicates average economic output per person and is used to compare living standards across countries.
Question 32
Which Five Year Plan focused on “Growth with Social Justice”?
Correct Answer: B) Seventh Five Year Plan
π Detailed Explanation
The Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-1990) had the theme “Growth with Social Justice.” This plan aimed to achieve economic growth while ensuring social equity and justice. It focused on food, work, and productivity. Key objectives included: increasing food grain production, expanding employment opportunities, raising productivity across sectors, and ensuring social justice through redistribution of income and wealth. The plan targeted 5% annual GDP growth but achieved 6% growth. Major emphasis was placed on agriculture and rural development. It promoted the liberalization of the economy with reduced government controls. The plan introduced the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana for rural employment. It also focused on education, population control, and environmental protection. This plan laid the groundwork for the economic reforms of 1991. The Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog in 2015) formulated India’s Five Year Plans from 1951 to 2017. The Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017) was the last plan, after which India adopted a new policy framework focusing on three-year action agendas.
Question 33
NITI Aayog replaced which organization?
Correct Answer: B) Planning Commission
π Detailed Explanation
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on 1st January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission which had existed since 1950. The Planning Commission was dissolved because it was considered a top-down, centralized planning body unsuitable for modern India’s federal structure and aspirations. NITI Aayog functions as a policy think tank that provides strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments. Unlike the Planning Commission which allocated funds, NITI Aayog focuses on cooperative federalism, encouraging states to become partners in national development. It promotes competitive and cooperative federalism. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson, and it includes a Governing Council with all state Chief Ministers and Lt. Governors. NITI Aayog’s functions include: formulating long-term vision and strategy, fostering cooperative federalism, designing strategic and long-term programs, monitoring and evaluation of flagship schemes, and promoting innovation and research. It prepares the Three-Year Action Agenda and Fifteen-Year Vision Document instead of traditional Five Year Plans.
Question 34
Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented in India in:
Correct Answer: C) 2017
π Detailed Explanation
Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented in India on 1st July 2017 at a historic midnight session in Parliament’s Central Hall. GST is a comprehensive indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and services, replacing multiple central and state taxes like excise duty, service tax, VAT, entertainment tax, luxury tax, and others. The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 paved the way for GST. It is a destination-based tax collected at the point of consumption, not production. GST has four rate slabs: 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%, plus 0% for essential items and 3% for gold. It consists of CGST (Central GST), SGST (State GST), and IGST (Integrated GST for inter-state transactions). The GST Council, chaired by the Union Finance Minister with state finance ministers as members, decides on tax rates and policies. Benefits include “One Nation, One Tax,” elimination of cascading effects (tax on tax), ease of doing business, and expansion of the tax base. Implementation faced initial challenges but has gradually stabilized.
Question 35
The smallest unit of life is:
Correct Answer: B) Cell
π Detailed Explanation
The cell is the smallest unit of life capable of performing all life processes. The Cell Theory, proposed by Matthias Schleiden and Theodor Schwann in 1839, states that: (1) all living organisms are composed of one or more cells, (2) the cell is the basic unit of structure and organization in organisms, and (3) cells arise from pre-existing cells (added by Rudolf Virchow in 1855). Cells can be prokaryotic (without a defined nucleus, like bacteria) or eukaryotic (with a membrane-bound nucleus, like plant and animal cells). A typical cell contains cytoplasm enclosed by a cell membrane, with various organelles like mitochondria (powerhouse), ribosomes (protein synthesis), endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and in plant cells, chloroplasts (photosynthesis) and cell wall. The human body contains approximately 37 trillion cells. While atoms and molecules are smaller than cells, they are not considered units of life as they don’t exhibit life processes like metabolism, growth, reproduction, and response to stimuli.
Question 36
Photosynthesis takes place in:
Correct Answer: B) Chloroplast
π Detailed Explanation
Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, which are specialized organelles found in plant cells and algae. Chloroplasts contain the green pigment chlorophyll that absorbs light energy, primarily from the sun. The process of photosynthesis converts light energy, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose (chemical energy) and oxygen. The overall equation is: 6COβ + 6HβO + Light Energy β CβHββOβ + 6Oβ. Photosynthesis occurs in two stages: (1) Light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membranes where light energy is captured and converted to ATP and NADPH, and (2) Light-independent reactions (Calvin Cycle) occur in the stroma where COβ is fixed and glucose is synthesized using ATP and NADPH. Chloroplasts have a double membrane and contain stacks of thylakoids called grana. Photosynthesis is crucial for life on Earth as it is the primary source of organic compounds and oxygen in the atmosphere. All food chains ultimately depend on photosynthesis. Mitochondria, conversely, perform cellular respiration to release energy from glucose.
Question 37
The powerhouse of the cell is:
Correct Answer: A) Mitochondria
π Detailed Explanation
Mitochondria are known as the “powerhouse of the cell” because they generate most of the cell’s supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is used as a source of chemical energy. Through cellular respiration, mitochondria break down glucose and other organic molecules in the presence of oxygen to produce ATP. The process involves: (1) Glycolysis (in cytoplasm), (2) Krebs Cycle/Citric Acid Cycle (in mitochondrial matrix), and (3) Electron Transport Chain and oxidative phosphorylation (in inner mitochondrial membrane). The equation is: CβHββOβ + 6Oβ β 6COβ + 6HβO + Energy (ATP). Mitochondria have a double membrane – the inner membrane is folded into cristae to increase surface area for ATP production. They contain their own DNA (mtDNA) and reproduce independently, supporting the endosymbiotic theory that they were once free-living bacteria. Cells with high energy demands like muscle and nerve cells have more mitochondria. Mitochondrial dysfunction is linked to various diseases including diabetes, Parkinson’s, and aging.
Question 38
The unit of electric current is:
Correct Answer: B) Ampere
π Detailed Explanation
The Ampere (symbol: A) is the SI (International System of Units) unit of electric current. It is named after French physicist AndrΓ©-Marie AmpΓ¨re, one of the founders of electrodynamics. One ampere is defined as the flow of one coulomb of electrical charge per second through a conductor. Current (I) is the rate of flow of electric charge (Q) over time (t): I = Q/t. Electric current is the flow of electrons in a conductor like a wire. Other related electrical units include: Volt (V) measures electric potential difference or voltage, Ohm (Ξ©) measures electrical resistance, and Watt (W) measures electrical power. These are related by Ohm’s Law: V = IR (Voltage = Current Γ Resistance) and Power formula: P = VI (Power = Voltage Γ Current). Household appliances typically use currents ranging from a fraction of an ampere (for LED bulbs) to several amperes (for air conditioners and heaters). Electric current can be direct current (DC, flowing in one direction) or alternating current (AC, periodically reversing direction, used in household electricity).
Question 39
Newton’s First Law of Motion is also known as:
Correct Answer: B) Law of Inertia
π Detailed Explanation
Newton’s First Law of Motion is also known as the Law of Inertia. It states that an object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced external force. Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion. The greater the mass of an object, the greater its inertia. This law was first formulated by Galileo and later refined by Sir Isaac Newton in his Principia Mathematica (1687). Examples include: a passenger jerking forward when a bus suddenly stops (due to inertia of motion), or a tablecloth being pulled quickly from under dishes without disturbing them (due to inertia of rest). Newton’s Second Law (F = ma) relates force, mass, and acceleration. Newton’s Third Law states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. These three laws form the foundation of classical mechanics and are fundamental to understanding motion and forces.
Question 40
The chemical symbol for Sodium is:
Correct Answer: C) Na
π Detailed Explanation
The chemical symbol for Sodium is Na, derived from its Latin name “Natrium.” Sodium is a soft, silvery-white, highly reactive metal belonging to Group 1 (alkali metals) of the periodic table. Its atomic number is 11 and atomic mass is approximately 23. Sodium was first isolated by Sir Humphry Davy in 1807 through the electrolysis of sodium hydroxide. It is so reactive that it must be stored under oil to prevent reaction with moisture and oxygen in air. When exposed to water, sodium reacts violently, producing sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. Sodium is essential for life and plays crucial roles in nerve impulse transmission, muscle contraction, and maintaining fluid balance. Common sodium compounds include sodium chloride (NaCl – table salt), sodium bicarbonate (NaHCOβ – baking soda), and sodium hydroxide (NaOH – caustic soda). Excessive sodium intake is linked to high blood pressure. The symbol ‘S’ represents Sulfur, not Sodium.
Question 41
Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
π Detailed Explanation
Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution. He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly, which was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India. Born on 14th April 1891, Ambedkar was a jurist, economist, social reformer, and politician who dedicated his life to fighting social discrimination and establishing equal rights for all citizens, particularly for the oppressed classes. He held doctorates from Columbia University and the London School of Economics. Under his leadership, the Constituent Assembly completed the Constitution in 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days. The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950 (Republic Day). Ambedkar ensured the Constitution guaranteed fundamental rights, abolished untouchability, and provided for social justice and equality. He also served as India’s first Law Minister. He was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1990. His contributions to nation-building and social reform remain unparalleled.
Question 42
Which Vitamin is known as the ‘Sunshine Vitamin’?
Correct Answer: C) Vitamin D
π Detailed Explanation
Vitamin D is known as the ‘Sunshine Vitamin’ because the human body can synthesize it when skin is exposed to sunlight, specifically ultraviolet B (UVB) rays. When UVB rays strike the skin, they convert 7-dehydrocholesterol to previtamin D3, which is then converted to vitamin D3. About 10-30 minutes of sun exposure several times a week is usually sufficient for vitamin D synthesis, though this varies based on skin color, location, season, and time of day. Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption and bone health, immune function, muscle function, and cell growth. Deficiency causes rickets in children (soft, weak bones) and osteomalacia in adults. It also increases the risk of osteoporosis, fractures, and has been linked to various diseases. Food sources include fatty fish (salmon, mackerel), fish liver oils, egg yolks, and fortified foods like milk and cereals. Vitamin D is fat-soluble and exists in two forms: D2 (ergocalciferol) from plants and D3 (cholecalciferol) from animals and skin synthesis.
Question 43
The longest river in the world is:
Correct Answer: B) Nile
π Detailed Explanation
The Nile River is traditionally considered the longest river in the world, with a length of approximately 6,650 km (4,130 miles). It flows through northeastern Africa, passing through 11 countries: Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, Democratic Republic of Congo, Kenya, Ethiopia, Eritrea, South Sudan, Sudan, and Egypt. The Nile has two major tributaries: the White Nile (originating from Lake Victoria) and the Blue Nile (originating from Lake Tana in Ethiopia). They meet at Khartoum, Sudan. The Nile flows northward and empties into the Mediterranean Sea. Ancient Egyptian civilization flourished along its banks, depending on annual floods for agriculture. However, recent measurements suggest the Amazon River in South America might be slightly longer at around 6,992 km when including all tributaries, making the longest river debate ongoing. The Amazon carries more water than any other river – about 20% of global river discharge. The Yangtze (6,300 km) in China is the third longest, and the Mississippi-Missouri system (6,275 km) in USA is fourth.
Question 44
Which planet is known as the Red Planet?
Correct Answer: C) Mars
π Detailed Explanation
Mars is known as the Red Planet because of its reddish appearance in the night sky, caused by iron oxide (rust) covering its surface. Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun and the second-smallest planet in the solar system after Mercury. It has a thin atmosphere composed mainly of carbon dioxide (95%), with traces of nitrogen and argon. Mars has two small moons, Phobos and Deimos. The planet has polar ice caps containing water ice and frozen carbon dioxide. Mars features the largest volcano in the solar system, Olympus Mons (about 22 km high), and Valles Marineris, a canyon system stretching over 4,000 km. A Martian day (sol) is about 24 hours 37 minutes. Mars has been a focus of space exploration with missions by NASA (Perseverance, Curiosity rovers), ESA, and other space agencies. Evidence suggests Mars once had liquid water on its surface, raising possibilities of past microbial life. Human missions to Mars are planned for the 2030s.
Question 45
Who invented the telephone?
Correct Answer: A) Alexander Graham Bell
π Detailed Explanation
Alexander Graham Bell is credited with inventing the telephone and was awarded the first US patent for it in 1876. Born in Scotland in 1847, Bell moved to Canada and then the USA. He was a scientist, inventor, and teacher of the deaf. On March 10, 1876, Bell made the first successful telephone call to his assistant Thomas Watson, saying the famous words: “Mr. Watson, come here, I want to see you.” The telephone works by converting sound waves into electrical signals, transmitting them through wires, and converting them back to sound at the receiving end. However, there is controversy as Italian inventor Antonio Meucci developed a voice communication device earlier but couldn’t afford the patent. In 2002, the US Congress recognized Meucci’s contribution. Elisha Gray also filed a patent caveat on the same day as Bell. Despite controversies, Bell successfully commercialized the telephone, founding Bell Telephone Company in 1877, which revolutionized communication worldwide.
Question 46
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was founded in:
Correct Answer: C) 1969
π Detailed Explanation
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) was founded on 15th August 1969, replacing the Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) established in 1962. ISRO operates under the Department of Space, directly reporting to the Prime Minister. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is considered the Father of the Indian Space Program and was the founding director of ISRO. The headquarters is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka. ISRO’s major achievements include: Aryabhata (first Indian satellite, 1975), SLV-3 (first satellite launch vehicle, 1980), Chandrayaan-1 (lunar mission discovering water on Moon, 2008), Mars Orbiter Mission/Mangalyaan (2013, making India the first Asian nation to reach Mars orbit), Chandrayaan-2 (2019), and Chandrayaan-3 (successful Moon landing, 2023). ISRO also operates the PSLV and GSLV launch vehicles, NAVIC/IRNSS navigation system, and numerous communication, earth observation, and scientific satellites. ISRO is known for cost-effective space missions and has launched satellites for many countries. The Gaganyaan mission aims to send Indian astronauts to space.
Question 47
Which of the following is the capital of Australia?
Correct Answer: C) Canberra
π Detailed Explanation
Canberra is the capital city of Australia, located in the Australian Capital Territory (ACT). It was founded in 1913 as a purpose-built capital city to settle the rivalry between Sydney and Melbourne, Australia’s two largest cities, both of which wanted to be the national capital. The name Canberra is derived from the indigenous Ngunnawal word “Kamberra” meaning “meeting place.” The city was designed by American architects Walter Burley Griffin and Marion Mahony Griffin, who won an international design competition in 1912. Canberra is home to important national institutions including Parliament House, the High Court of Australia, Australian War Memorial, and National Gallery of Australia. Despite being the capital, Canberra is only the eighth-largest city in Australia with a population of about 450,000. Sydney is the largest city and economic hub, while Melbourne is the second-largest and cultural capital. Canberra is planned with artificial Lake Burley Griffin at its center and is known for being a well-organized, green city.
Question 48
The first woman Prime Minister of India was:
Correct Answer: A) Indira Gandhi
π Detailed Explanation
Indira Gandhi was the first woman Prime Minister of India, serving from 1966 to 1977 and again from 1980 until her assassination in 1984. She was the daughter of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru. Born on 19th November 1917, Indira Priyadarshini became India’s third Prime Minister on 24th January 1966, following Lal Bahadur Shastri’s death. Her major achievements include: victory in the 1971 Indo-Pak war leading to Bangladesh’s creation, nationalization of banks (1969), abolition of privy purses of former princely states, Pokhran-I nuclear test (1974), and Green Revolution expansion. However, her tenure was also marked by the controversial Emergency period (1975-77) when civil liberties were suspended. She founded the New Congress party after a split in the Indian National Congress. Known as the “Iron Lady of India,” she was a strong and decisive leader. She was assassinated by her own Sikh bodyguards on 31st October 1984 following Operation Blue Star. Her son Rajiv Gandhi later became Prime Minister.
Question 49
The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:
Correct Answer: B) New York
π Detailed Explanation
The headquarters of the United Nations (UN) is located in New York City, USA, specifically in the Turtle Bay neighborhood of Manhattan along the East River. The complex was completed in 1952 and stands on international territory. The UN was established on 24th October 1945 after World War II to prevent future wars, with the UN Charter signed by 51 countries. Currently, the UN has 193 member states (as of 2023). The organization’s main organs include: General Assembly (all members, one country one vote), Security Council (15 members including 5 permanent members with veto power: USA, Russia, China, UK, France), International Court of Justice (The Hague, Netherlands), Economic and Social Council, Trusteeship Council, and Secretariat headed by the Secretary-General. The current Secretary-General is AntΓ³nio Guterres from Portugal (since 2017). The UN also has major offices in Geneva (Switzerland), Vienna (Austria), and Nairobi (Kenya). The organization works on issues including peacekeeping, humanitarian aid, sustainable development, human rights, and international law.
Question 50
The book ‘Discovery of India’ was written by:
Correct Answer: B) Jawaharlal Nehru
π Detailed Explanation
‘The Discovery of India’ was written by Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment in Ahmednagar Fort from 1942 to 1946, during the Quit India Movement. The book was published in 1946 and presents a comprehensive account of Indian history, philosophy, culture, and civilization from ancient times to the contemporary freedom struggle. Nehru explores India’s rich cultural heritage, religious diversity, social structures, and the impact of British colonialism. The book reflects his vision of a modern, secular, and democratic India. It covers topics including the Indus Valley Civilization, Vedic period, Buddhism, Mughal Empire, British rule, and the national movement. Written in a narrative style, it combines historical facts with personal reflections. The book was adapted into a popular 53-episode television series ‘Bharat Ek Khoj’ by Shyam Benegal in 1988. Nehru also wrote other important works including ‘Glimpses of World History’ and his autobiography ‘Toward Freedom.’ This book remains essential reading for understanding Indian history and Nehru’s ideological framework.