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WBSSC Group C & D Mock Test 2026 – Set 4 | General Awareness 50 MCQs with Answers

WBSSC Group C & D General Awareness Mock Test – Set 4 – 50 Questions | AspirantZone.in

WBSSC Group C & D Mock Test – Set 4

General Awareness – 50 Questions

Instructions: Click on any option to view the correct answer and detailed explanation

Total Questions: 50 | Topics: History, Geography, Polity, Economy, Science & Current Affairs

Question 1
The Battle of Haldighati was fought in:
A) 1556 CE
B) 1576 CE
C) 1600 CE
D) 1526 CE
Correct Answer: B) 1576 CE
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18th June 1576 between Maharana Pratap of Mewar and the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh of Amber, who was commanding on behalf of Emperor Akbar. The battle took place at Haldighati, a mountain pass in the Aravalli Range near Gogunda in present-day Rajasthan. Though the battle was inconclusive and both sides claimed victory, Maharana Pratap had to retreat to the hills. Despite losing the battle, Pratap continued guerrilla warfare against the Mughals and never surrendered. His loyal horse Chetak died in this battle while saving Pratap’s life. The battle is celebrated for Pratap’s valor and determination to maintain Mewar’s independence.
Question 2
Akbar founded the Din-i-Ilahi in which year?
A) 1575 CE
B) 1579 CE
C) 1580 CE
D) 1582 CE
Correct Answer: D) 1582 CE
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Akbar founded Din-i-Ilahi (Divine Faith) in 1582 CE as a syncretic religious movement combining elements from Islam, Hinduism, Zoroastrianism, Christianity, and Jainism. The movement emphasized monotheism, loyalty to the emperor, tolerance, and respect for all religions. It was not meant to be a new religion but rather a spiritual path for the elite. Din-i-Ilahi had very few followers, mainly courtiers like Birbal, and did not survive beyond Akbar’s death. The movement reflected Akbar’s policy of Sulh-i-Kul (universal peace) and his desire to create religious harmony in his diverse empire. It included practices like sun worship, vegetarianism, and prohibition of alcohol.
Question 3
Who was known as the ‘Andhra Bhoj’?
A) Krishnadeva Raya
B) Rajendra Chola
C) Harihara
D) Bukka
Correct Answer: A) Krishnadeva Raya
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Krishnadeva Raya, who ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1509 to 1529 CE, was known as ‘Andhra Bhoj’ due to his patronage of literature and learning. The title compares him to the legendary King Bhoja of Malwa, who was renowned for his scholarship and patronage of arts. Krishnadeva Raya’s court was adorned with the Ashta Diggajas (eight great poets) including Allasani Peddana, Nandi Thimmana, and Tenali Ramakrishna. He himself was an accomplished poet and author, writing Amuktamalyada in Telugu, which is considered a masterpiece. His reign is considered the golden age of Telugu literature. He was also a great military leader who expanded the Vijayanagara Empire to its greatest extent.
Question 4
The Battle of Talikota was fought in:
A) 1526 CE
B) 1565 CE
C) 1576 CE
D) 1586 CE
Correct Answer: B) 1565 CE
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Battle of Talikota, also known as the Battle of Rakshasa-Tangadi, was fought on 23rd January 1565. It was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire under Rama Raya and the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates (Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Golconda, Bidar, and Berar). The Vijayanagara forces were decisively defeated, and Rama Raya was captured and beheaded. This battle marked the end of the Vijayanagara Empire’s power and glory. Following the battle, the capital city of Vijayanagara (present-day Hampi) was sacked and destroyed. The sultanates’ victory was due to superior artillery and the treachery of Muslim commanders in the Vijayanagara army who defected during the battle.
Question 5
Amir Khusrau was a court poet of:
A) Muhammad bin Tughluq
B) Alauddin Khalji
C) Sher Shah Suri
D) Humayun
Correct Answer: B) Alauddin Khalji
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Amir Khusrau (1253-1325 CE) was a court poet primarily associated with Alauddin Khalji, though he served seven sultans of Delhi during his lifetime including Balban, Kaiqubad, Jalal-ud-din Khalji, Alauddin Khalji, Qutb-ud-din Mubarak Shah, and Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq. He is known as the ‘Parrot of India’ (Tuti-e-Hind) and made pioneering contributions to Hindustani classical music, inventing several musical instruments like the sitar and tabla. He also played a key role in developing Khari Boli, which later became modern Hindi. He wrote poetry in Persian and Hindavi, and was a disciple of the Sufi saint Nizamuddin Auliya. His works include Qiran-us-Sadain, Miftah-ul-Futuh, and Khazain-ul-Futuh.
Question 6
Who introduced the silver coin ‘Rupiya’?
A) Akbar
B) Sher Shah Suri
C) Alauddin Khalji
D) Bakhtiyar Khalji
Correct Answer: B) Sher Shah Suri
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Sher Shah Suri introduced the silver coin called ‘Rupiya’ (Rupee) during his reign from 1540-1545 CE. The rupiya weighed 178 grains (approximately 11.5 grams) and became the standard currency. The exchange rate was 64 copper dams to one silver rupiya. Sher Shah also introduced copper coins called Dam and gold coins called Mohur. His currency system was so well-designed and efficient that it continued under the Mughals and even the British. The modern Indian rupee derives its name from Sher Shah’s rupiya. This monetary reform was part of his broader administrative and economic reforms that included reorganizing the revenue system, building roads like the Grand Trunk Road, and establishing sarais (rest houses) for travelers.
Question 7
The Mausoleum of Sher Shah is located at:
A) Sasaram
B) Delhi
C) Kalinjar
D) Sonargaon
Correct Answer: A) Sasaram
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The tomb of Sher Shah Suri is located in Sasaram, Bihar. It is considered one of the finest examples of Indo-Islamic architecture in India. The mausoleum stands in the middle of an artificial lake and is built on a square stone plinth. The tomb is 122 feet high and has a large dome surrounded by kiosks with smaller domes. It was completed in 1545, just three months after Sher Shah’s death. The architectural style influenced later Mughal architecture, including the design of Humayun’s Tomb. Sher Shah died during the siege of Kalinjar Fort when gunpowder exploded accidentally. The tomb’s grand design reflects Sher Shah’s legacy as one of the greatest rulers of medieval India who ruled for only five years but left lasting reforms.
Question 8
Who wrote ‘Humayun Nama’?
A) Babur
B) Humayun
C) Gulbadan Begum
D) Jahangir
Correct Answer: C) Gulbadan Begum
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Gulbadan Begum, daughter of Emperor Babur and half-sister of Humayun, wrote ‘Humayun Nama’ (also known as ‘Ahwal Humayun Padshah Jamah Kardom Gulbadan Begum bint Babur Padshah amma Akbar Padshah’). She wrote this memoir at the request of her nephew, Emperor Akbar, who wanted to know about his father Humayun’s life. The work provides valuable insights into the Mughal court, especially the zenana (women’s quarters), and is one of the earliest examples of historical writing by a woman in India. Written in Persian, it describes the reigns of Babur and Humayun from a personal perspective. Gulbadan Begum was a learned and cultured woman who also undertook the Hajj pilgrimage to Mecca.
Question 9
The Taj Mahal was built by Shah Jahan in memory of:
A) Mumtaz Mahal
B) Nur Jahan
C) Jahanara
D) Roshanara
Correct Answer: A) Mumtaz Mahal
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Taj Mahal was built by Emperor Shah Jahan in memory of his beloved wife Mumtaz Mahal (whose real name was Arjumand Banu Begum). She died in 1631 while giving birth to their 14th child at Burhanpur. The construction of this magnificent white marble mausoleum began in 1632 and was completed in 1653, taking approximately 22 years. It is located in Agra on the banks of the Yamuna River. Over 20,000 artisans from India, Persia, Ottoman Empire, and Europe worked on this masterpiece under the supervision of architect Ustad Ahmad Lahori. The Taj Mahal is considered the finest example of Mughal architecture combining Persian, Islamic, and Indian architectural styles. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1983 and is one of the Seven Wonders of the World.
Question 10
Who re-imposed Jizya tax?
A) Akbar
B) Aurangzeb
C) Jahangir
D) Humayun
Correct Answer: B) Aurangzeb
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Aurangzeb re-imposed Jizya (a tax on non-Muslims) in 1679, which had been abolished by Akbar in 1564. Jizya was a per capita tax levied on adult non-Muslim males in lieu of military service. The re-imposition of Jizya was part of Aurangzeb’s orthodox religious policies and caused widespread resentment among Hindus. Several protests occurred, including a large demonstration at the Jama Masjid in Delhi led by Hindu leaders and even Aurangzeb’s own sister Jahanara. Despite opposition, Aurangzeb maintained this policy throughout his reign. The tax was collected at different rates based on economic status: 12 dirhams from the wealthy, 6 from middle class, and 3 from the poor. This policy alienated many Hindu subjects and contributed to rebellions, particularly by the Marathas, Rajputs, and Jats.
Question 11
Chhatrapati Shivaji crowned himself in:
A) 1666 CE
B) 1670 CE
C) 1674 CE
D) 1680 CE
Correct Answer: C) 1674 CE
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj crowned himself as the independent Maratha king on 6th June 1674 at Raigad Fort. The coronation ceremony was performed according to Vedic rites by Pandit Gaga Bhatt from Varanasi. Shivaji took the title of ‘Chhatrapati’ (Paramount Sovereign). A second coronation was held in 1674 itself according to Bengali almanac calculations to nullify any inauspicious aspects of the first ceremony. The coronation marked the establishment of the Maratha Empire as an independent sovereign state, challenging Mughal supremacy in the Deccan. Shivaji’s mother Jijabai died just 12 days before the coronation. The ceremony included all Hindu rituals and was attended by representatives from various kingdoms. This event is celebrated as a significant milestone in Indian history.
Question 12
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought in:
A) 1556
B) 1757
C) 1761
D) 1764
Correct Answer: C) 1761
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on 14th January 1761 between the Maratha Empire led by Sadashivrao Bhau and the Afghan forces of Ahmad Shah Abdali (also known as Ahmad Shah Durrani) supported by Najib-ud-Daula and Shuja-ud-Daula. The battle resulted in a decisive victory for Ahmad Shah Abdali. The Marathas suffered heavy casualties with thousands of soldiers killed, including several prominent leaders. This defeat severely weakened the Maratha Empire and ended their ambitions to control North India. The battle is considered one of the largest and bloodiest fought in the 18th century. The power vacuum created by Maratha decline paved the way for British expansion in India. The battle’s outcome changed the political landscape of the subcontinent.
Question 13
The Battle of Plassey was fought in:
A) 1756
B) 1757
C) 1760
D) 1764
Correct Answer: B) 1757
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23rd June 1757 between the British East India Company led by Robert Clive and the forces of Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. The battle took place at Palashi (anglicized as Plassey) on the banks of the Bhagirathi River, near Murshidabad. The British won decisively due to the conspiracy and treachery of Mir Jafar, Siraj’s commander-in-chief, and other nobles who betrayed the Nawab. Mir Jafar had made a secret pact with the British promising not to fight. The British had only 3,000 soldiers while Siraj had 50,000, but the betrayal decided the outcome. This battle marked the beginning of British political dominance in India and laid the foundation for British colonial rule. Mir Jafar was made the puppet Nawab after Siraj’s defeat and execution.
Question 14
The Battle of Buxar was fought in:
A) 1757
B) 1761
C) 1764
D) 1767
Correct Answer: C) 1764
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22nd October 1764 between the British East India Company led by Major Hector Munro and the combined forces of Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Shuja-ud-Daulah (Nawab of Awadh), and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II. The British won a decisive victory, which was more significant than Plassey as it was a real military victory rather than one achieved through conspiracy. The battle consolidated British power in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. Following the victory, the Treaty of Allahabad was signed in 1765, granting the Company the Diwani (right to collect revenue) of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. This marked the beginning of British territorial control in India. The battle demonstrated British military superiority and established them as the paramount power in Northern India.
Question 15
The Permanent Settlement was introduced by:
A) Warren Hastings
B) Lord Cornwallis
C) Lord Wellesley
D) Lord Dalhousie
Correct Answer: B) Lord Cornwallis
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Permanent Settlement (also called Permanent Settlement of Bengal or Cornwallis Code) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa. Under this system, the land revenue was fixed permanently with zamindars (landlords), who became the owners of the land and were responsible for collecting revenue from peasants and paying a fixed amount to the Company. The revenue was fixed at 10/11th of the rental income, with zamindars keeping 1/11th. The system aimed to create a class of loyal landlords and ensure regular revenue. However, it had several negative consequences: zamindars became exploitative, peasants were oppressed, agriculture didn’t improve, and the government couldn’t increase revenue despite inflation. The system created a new class of absentee landlords who had no attachment to the land.
Question 16
The Subsidiary Alliance system was introduced by:
A) Lord Cornwallis
B) Lord Wellesley
C) Lord Dalhousie
D) Lord Hastings
Correct Answer: B) Lord Wellesley
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Subsidiary Alliance system was introduced by Lord Wellesley in 1798 to establish British supremacy over Indian states without direct annexation. Under this system, Indian rulers who entered into alliance with the British had to accept British troops in their territories, pay for their maintenance, accept a British Resident in their court, and surrender their foreign relations to the British. In return, the British promised to protect them from external aggression. The ruler could not employ any European without British approval. The first state to accept this was Hyderabad in 1798, followed by Mysore (1799), Tanjore (1799), Awadh (1801), and others. This system reduced Indian rulers to puppet kings dependent on British protection, drained their finances, and gradually brought most of India under British control.
Question 17
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by:
A) Lord Wellesley
B) Lord Hastings
C) Lord Dalhousie
D) Lord Canning
Correct Answer: C) Lord Dalhousie
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Doctrine of Lapse was a policy of annexation introduced by Lord Dalhousie, who served as Governor-General from 1848 to 1856. According to this doctrine, if an Indian ruler died without a natural male heir, his kingdom would ‘lapse’ and become part of British territory. Adopted heirs were not recognized. This policy was used to annex several Indian states including Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambalpur (1849), Baghat (1850), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854), and Awadh (1856). The annexation of Awadh was particularly controversial as it was done on grounds of misgovernance. This aggressive expansionist policy created widespread resentment among Indian rulers and was one of the major causes of the 1857 Revolt. The policy was withdrawn after the revolt.
Question 18
Which river does NOT originate in India?
A) Ganga
B) Godavari
C) Brahmaputra
D) Krishna
Correct Answer: C) Brahmaputra
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Brahmaputra River does not originate in India. It originates in the Angsi Glacier in the Himalayas of Tibet, where it is known as Yarlung Tsangpo. The river flows eastward through Tibet for about 1,100 km, then takes a sharp U-turn at Namcha Barwa and enters India in Arunachal Pradesh where it is called Siang/Dihang. In Assam, it is known as Brahmaputra. The river then flows through Bangladesh where it is called Jamuna, and finally merges with the Ganga to form the world’s largest delta, the Sundarbans Delta, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. The Brahmaputra is 2,900 km long and is one of the few rivers in the world that exhibits a tidal bore. The Ganga, Godavari, and Krishna all originate within India.
Question 19
Duncan Passage is located between:
A) Minicoy and Maldives
B) South Andaman and Little Andaman
C) Car Nicobar and Great Nicobar
D) North Andaman and Middle Andaman
Correct Answer: B) South Andaman and Little Andaman
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Duncan Passage is a strait in the Andaman Islands that separates Little Andaman Island from South Andaman Island. It is one of the important waterways in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands archipelago. The passage is named after Captain Duncan, who surveyed these islands. Other important passages in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands include: Ten Degree Channel (between Little Andaman and Car Nicobar), Nine Degree Channel (between Minicoy and Maldives), Eight Degree Channel (between Minicoy and Maldives in Lakshadweep), and Great Channel (between Great Nicobar and Sumatra). These passages are strategically important for maritime navigation in the Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean region.
Question 20
Which state has the longest coastline in India?
A) Maharashtra
B) Gujarat
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer: B) Gujarat
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Gujarat has the longest coastline among Indian states with approximately 1,600 km of coast along the Arabian Sea. This is about 33% of India’s total mainland coastline. Gujarat’s coastline includes the Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of Khambhat. The state has important ports like Kandla, Mundra, and Pipavav. Major coastal cities include Ahmedabad (near coast), Surat, and Jamnagar. Among Union Territories, Andaman & Nicobar Islands has the longest coastline (1,962 km). The total coastline of India including islands is 7,516.6 km. Other states with long coastlines include Andhra Pradesh (974 km), Tamil Nadu (1,076 km including Puducherry), and Maharashtra (720 km). The coastline is vital for trade, fisheries, tourism, and naval defense.
Question 21
Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which amendment?
A) 40th Amendment
B) 41st Amendment
C) 42nd Amendment
D) 44th Amendment
Correct Answer: C) 42nd Amendment
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. These duties were incorporated based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Originally, 10 Fundamental Duties were added in a new Part IVA under Article 51A. The 11th duty was added later by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002, which made it a duty of every parent/guardian to provide education opportunities to children between 6-14 years. Fundamental Duties are inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR (Soviet Union). Though not legally enforceable, they serve as moral obligations. They include duties like respecting the Constitution, national flag and anthem, promoting harmony, protecting the environment, developing scientific temper, and safeguarding public property.
Question 22
The minimum age to become the Prime Minister of India is:
A) 21 years
B) 25 years
C) 30 years
D) 35 years
Correct Answer: B) 25 years
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The minimum age to become Prime Minister of India is 25 years. This is because the Prime Minister must be a member of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), and the minimum age for Lok Sabha membership is 25 years (as per Article 84 of the Constitution). For Rajya Sabha, the minimum age is 30 years. There is no upper age limit. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President but must be a person who commands the confidence of the majority in the Lok Sabha. Typically, the leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Lok Sabha is appointed. The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and the real executive authority, while the President is the nominal head. Rajiv Gandhi became Prime Minister at age 40 (youngest), while Morarji Desai became PM at age 81 (oldest).
Question 23
The term of office of a Judge of the Supreme Court is:
A) 60 years
B) 65 years
C) 70 years
D) Till impeachment
Correct Answer: B) 65 years
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
A Judge of the Supreme Court of India holds office until the age of 65 years, as per Article 124 of the Constitution. A Judge can vacate office earlier by resignation or removal through impeachment by Parliament. For impeachment, a motion must be passed by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) in both Houses of Parliament on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity. Supreme Court Judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other judges. Since the Second Judges Case (1993), appointments are made through the collegium system. The Chief Justice of India is typically the senior-most judge. In comparison, High Court Judges retire at 62 years, and the President at completion of 5-year term or age 70, whichever is earlier (no specified age, just term limit).
Question 24
The Finance Commission is constituted every:
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years
Correct Answer: C) 5 years
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years or earlier, as required under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its primary function is to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and States. The Commission makes recommendations on: distribution of net proceeds of taxes between Union and States, principles governing grants-in-aid to states, measures to augment state consolidated funds, and any other financial matter referred by the President. The First Finance Commission was constituted in 1951 under the chairmanship of K.C. Neogy. The 15th Finance Commission (2020-2025) is currently operational, chaired by N.K. Singh. The Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members appointed by the President. Its recommendations are not binding but are generally accepted by the government.
Question 25
Panchayati Raj was introduced based on the recommendations of:
A) Ashok Mehta Committee
B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
C) L.M. Singhvi Committee
D) G.V.K. Rao Committee
Correct Answer: B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Panchayati Raj system was introduced in India based on the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957). The committee recommended a three-tier structure: Gram Panchayat at village level, Panchayat Samiti at block level, and Zila Parishad at district level. The first Panchayati Raj system was inaugurated by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru at Nagaur, Rajasthan, on 2nd October 1959. Later, the Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) recommended a two-tier system. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions, making it mandatory for states to establish Panchayats. The Act provided for regular elections, reservation for SC/ST and women (33%), and devolution of powers and responsibilities. Panchayati Raj represents grassroots democracy and local self-governance.
Question 26
Repo Rate is a monetary policy tool used by:
A) Reserve Bank of India
B) SEBI
C) Finance Ministry
D) NITI Aayog
Correct Answer: A) Reserve Bank of India
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Repo Rate (Repurchase Rate) is a key monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It is the rate at which RBI lends money to commercial banks against government securities for short-term needs. When banks face a shortage of funds, they can borrow from RBI by selling securities with an agreement to repurchase them later. A higher repo rate makes borrowing expensive for banks, which in turn increases lending rates for customers, thereby reducing money supply and controlling inflation. A lower repo rate makes borrowing cheaper, encouraging lending and stimulating economic growth. The current repo rate (as of early 2026) is around 6.5%. The reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows from banks. The RBI’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) reviews and adjusts these rates periodically based on inflation and economic conditions.
Question 27
The term ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to:
A) Space technology
B) Fish production
C) Milk production
D) Oilseeds production
Correct Answer: B) Fish production
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Blue Revolution refers to the remarkable growth and development of the fisheries sector in India, particularly aquaculture and fish production. It was initiated during the Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-90) with the goal of increasing fish production and improving the economic condition of fishermen. Dr. Hiralal Chaudhuri and Dr. Arun Krishnsnan are considered the fathers of Blue Revolution in India. The revolution led to India becoming one of the world’s leading fish producing nations, with both marine and inland fisheries contributing significantly. Key initiatives include establishing fish farms, pisciculture development, and modernization of fishing techniques. Similarly, White Revolution relates to milk production (led by Dr. Verghese Kurien), Green Revolution to food grain production, Yellow Revolution to oilseeds, and Golden Revolution to horticulture and honey production.
Question 28
NABARD was established in:
A) 1975
B) 1980
C) 1982
D) 1990
Correct Answer: C) 1982
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established on 12th July 1982 based on the recommendations of the Shivaraman Committee (1979). It was set up by an Act of Parliament to replace the Agricultural Credit Department and Rural Planning and Credit Cell of the Reserve Bank of India. NABARD’s headquarters is in Mumbai, and it has regional offices across India. The main functions of NABARD include providing refinance to banks and financial institutions for rural development activities, supervising cooperative banks and regional rural banks, promoting rural industries and cottage industries, and implementing government’s flagship programs for rural development. NABARD plays a crucial role in financial inclusion, microfinance, self-help groups (SHGs), and farmer welfare schemes. It is wholly owned by the Government of India.
Question 29
The headquarter of World Trade Organization (WTO) is located in:
A) New York
B) Paris
C) Geneva
D) Vienna
Correct Answer: C) Geneva
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The World Trade Organization (WTO) has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. The WTO was established on 1st January 1995, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) which had functioned since 1948. The WTO deals with regulation of trade in goods, services, and intellectual property between participating countries. It provides a framework for negotiating trade agreements and a dispute resolution process. The organization has 164 member countries (as of 2023). India is a founding member of WTO. The main functions include administering trade agreements, acting as a forum for trade negotiations, settling trade disputes, monitoring national trade policies, and providing technical assistance to developing countries. The current Director-General is Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala from Nigeria, the first woman and first African to hold this position.
Question 30
The National Income of India is measured in:
A) Calendar year
B) Fiscal year starting January
C) Fiscal year starting April
D) Academic year
Correct Answer: C) Fiscal year starting April
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The National Income of India is measured in the fiscal year (financial year) which runs from 1st April to 31st March of the following year. This system was adopted by India at the time of independence. For example, the fiscal year 2025-26 runs from 1st April 2025 to 31st March 2026. This period is used for all government financial accounting, budgeting, taxation, and economic data reporting including GDP, National Income, and other economic indicators. The fiscal year system helps in aligning tax collection (which peaks after the harvest season) with government expenditure planning. Many other countries follow different fiscal years – for example, the United States follows October to September, while the United Kingdom changed from April-March to January-December in 2015. India continues with the April-March system.
Question 31
The Chipko Movement was started in:
A) Kerala
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Odisha
D) Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: D) Uttarakhand
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Chipko Movement started in April 1973 in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh). It was a forest conservation movement where people, especially women, embraced trees to prevent them from being cut down. The movement was pioneered by environmentalist Chandi Prasad Bhatt and his organization Dasholi Gram Swarajya Sangh. The famous Chipko activist Gaura Devi led 27 women who prevented tree felling in Reni village in 1974. Another prominent leader was Sunderlal Bahuguna who coined the Chipko slogan ‘Ecology is permanent economy.’ The movement spread across India and was successful in stopping tree felling in many areas. In 1981, the Uttar Pradesh government banned tree cutting in the Himalayan forests for 15 years. The Chipko Movement inspired similar grassroots environmental movements worldwide.
Question 32
Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen
Correct Answer: C) Carbon dioxide
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Carbon dioxide (COβ‚‚) is a major greenhouse gas that traps heat in the Earth’s atmosphere, contributing to global warming and climate change. Greenhouse gases allow sunlight to enter the atmosphere but prevent some of the heat from escaping back into space, creating a “greenhouse effect.” The main greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide, methane (CHβ‚„), nitrous oxide (Nβ‚‚O), ozone (O₃), and water vapor (Hβ‚‚O). Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are also powerful greenhouse gases. COβ‚‚ is released primarily through burning fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas), deforestation, and industrial processes. Since the Industrial Revolution, atmospheric COβ‚‚ levels have increased by over 40%, from about 280 ppm to over 420 ppm today. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions is crucial to combating climate change. India is committed to achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
Question 33
The human heart has how many chambers?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Correct Answer: C) 4
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The human heart has four chambers: two upper chambers called atria (right atrium and left atrium) and two lower chambers called ventricles (right ventricle and left ventricle). The right side of the heart (right atrium and right ventricle) receives deoxygenated blood from the body and pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation. The left side (left atrium and left ventricle) receives oxygenated blood from the lungs and pumps it to the rest of the body. The four-chambered heart allows for efficient separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, enabling mammals and birds to maintain higher metabolic rates. The heart beats approximately 70-80 times per minute at rest, pumping about 5 liters of blood per minute. Valves between the chambers prevent backflow of blood. The heart’s electrical system coordinates the rhythmic contractions.
Question 34
Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Correct Answer: D) O
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Blood group O negative (O-) is known as the universal donor because it can be transfused to people of any blood type. This is because O negative blood has no A, B, or Rh antigens on the red blood cells, so it doesn’t trigger an immune response in the recipient. However, people with O negative blood can only receive O negative blood. In contrast, AB positive (AB+) is called the universal recipient because people with this blood type can receive blood from any blood group. Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of antigens (A and B) on red blood cells and the Rh factor. The ABO blood group system was discovered by Karl Landsteiner in 1901, for which he received the Nobel Prize. Blood typing is crucial for safe blood transfusions and organ transplants.
Question 35
The largest gland in the human body is:
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Pituitary
Correct Answer: B) Liver
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The liver is the largest gland and the second-largest organ in the human body (after skin). An adult liver weighs approximately 1.5 kg (3.3 pounds) and is located in the upper right portion of the abdominal cavity, beneath the diaphragm. The liver performs over 500 vital functions including detoxification of harmful substances, production of bile for digestion of fats, metabolism of proteins and carbohydrates, storage of vitamins and minerals (especially vitamin A, D, E, K, and B12), production of blood clotting factors, and regulation of blood glucose levels. The liver has remarkable regenerative capacity and can regenerate itself even if up to 75% is removed or damaged. Liver diseases include hepatitis, cirrhosis, fatty liver disease, and liver cancer. The liver processes about 1.4 liters of blood per minute.
Question 36
The speed of light in vacuum is approximately:
A) 3 Γ— 10⁡ km/s
B) 3 Γ— 10⁢ km/s
C) 3 Γ— 10⁡ m/s
D) 3 Γ— 10⁸ m/s
Correct Answer: D) 3 Γ— 10⁸ m/s
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The speed of light in vacuum is approximately 3 Γ— 10⁸ meters per second (300,000 km/s or 186,282 miles/s). The exact value is 299,792,458 m/s. This is denoted by the symbol ‘c’ in physics. The speed of light is a fundamental physical constant and is the fastest speed at which energy, matter, and information can travel in the universe. Nothing can travel faster than light in vacuum. Einstein’s theory of special relativity is based on the constancy of the speed of light. Light takes about 8 minutes 20 seconds to travel from the Sun to Earth (about 150 million km). When light travels through a medium like water or glass, it slows down. The speed of light in a medium is c/n, where n is the refractive index of the medium.
Question 37
The nucleus of an atom contains:
A) Electrons and protons
B) Electrons and neutrons
C) Protons and neutrons
D) Only protons
Correct Answer: C) Protons and neutrons
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The nucleus of an atom contains protons (positively charged particles) and neutrons (neutral particles with no charge). Together, protons and neutrons are called nucleons. The nucleus is extremely small compared to the atom’s overall size but contains almost all of the atom’s mass (99.9%). Electrons (negatively charged particles) orbit the nucleus in electron shells or energy levels. The number of protons in the nucleus determines the element’s atomic number and defines what element it is. For example, all carbon atoms have 6 protons. The number of neutrons can vary, creating different isotopes of the same element. The strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons together in the nucleus, overcoming the electromagnetic repulsion between positively charged protons. The atomic nucleus was discovered by Ernest Rutherford in 1911 through his gold foil experiment.
Question 38
The chemical symbol for gold is:
A) Go
B) Gd
C) Au
D) Ag
Correct Answer: C) Au
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The chemical symbol for gold is Au, derived from its Latin name ‘Aurum’ meaning ‘shining dawn.’ Gold has atomic number 79 and is a precious metal known for its yellow color, malleability, ductility, and resistance to corrosion. It has been valued throughout human history for jewelry, currency, and as a symbol of wealth. Gold is an excellent conductor of electricity and is used in electronics. It is found in nature as nuggets or grains in rocks and alluvial deposits. India is one of the largest consumers of gold, primarily for jewelry. Other chemical symbols derived from Latin names include Ag for silver (Argentum), Fe for iron (Ferrum), Cu for copper (Cuprum), Pb for lead (Plumbum), and Hg for mercury (Hydrargyrum). Gold is measured in carats for purity, with 24-carat being pure gold.
Question 39
The process of conversion of solid directly into gas is called:
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Melting
D) Sublimation
Correct Answer: D) Sublimation
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Sublimation is the process by which a solid directly converts into a gas without passing through the liquid state. The reverse process, where gas directly converts to solid, is called deposition or desublimation. Common examples of sublimation include: dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) subliming to carbon dioxide gas at room temperature, camphor and naphthalene balls gradually disappearing, and iodine crystals forming purple vapor when heated gently. Sublimation occurs when the substance’s vapor pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure at a temperature below its melting point. In contrast, evaporation is liquid to gas, condensation is gas to liquid, melting is solid to liquid, and freezing is liquid to solid. Sublimation is used in freeze-drying food and pharmaceuticals, purifying substances, and in sublimation printing technology.
Question 40
The SI unit of electric charge is:
A) Ampere
B) Coulomb
C) Volt
D) Ohm
Correct Answer: B) Coulomb
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The SI (International System) unit of electric charge is the Coulomb (C), named after French physicist Charles-Augustin de Coulomb. One coulomb is defined as the amount of electric charge transported by a constant current of one ampere in one second. Mathematically, 1 C = 1 A Γ— 1 s. The elementary charge of a single electron or proton is approximately 1.6 Γ— 10⁻¹⁹ coulombs. Therefore, one coulomb represents the charge of about 6.24 Γ— 10¹⁸ electrons. Electric charge is a fundamental property of matter and can be positive or negative. Like charges repel and unlike charges attract. Related units include: Ampere (A) for electric current, Volt (V) for electric potential difference, Ohm (Ξ©) for resistance, and Watt (W) for electrical power.
Question 41
RAM stands for:
A) Read Access Memory
B) Random Access Memory
C) Rapid Access Memory
D) Readable Access Memory
Correct Answer: B) Random Access Memory
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
RAM stands for Random Access Memory. It is a type of computer memory that can be read and written in any order, typically used to store working data and machine code. RAM is volatile memory, meaning it loses all stored information when power is turned off. It is much faster than permanent storage devices like hard drives or SSDs. RAM temporarily stores data and programs that the CPU is actively using, allowing for quick access and processing. More RAM generally means better multitasking capability and faster performance. Modern computers typically have 4GB to 32GB of RAM, while high-performance systems may have 64GB or more. There are different types of RAM including DDR3, DDR4, and DDR5 (DDR stands for Double Data Rate), with each generation offering improved speed and efficiency.
Question 42
The binary number system uses how many digits?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 8
D) 10
Correct Answer: B) 2
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The binary number system uses only two digits: 0 and 1. It is also called the base-2 number system. Binary is the fundamental language of computers and digital electronics because it corresponds to the two states of electronic switches: off (0) and on (1). All data in computers – including numbers, text, images, and videos – is ultimately stored and processed as binary code. For example, the decimal number 5 is represented as 101 in binary, and 10 is represented as 1010. Each binary digit is called a ‘bit’ (binary digit), and 8 bits make a byte. In contrast, the decimal system we use daily is base-10 (using digits 0-9), hexadecimal is base-16 (using 0-9 and A-F), and octal is base-8 (using 0-7).
Question 43
The ‘Father of Indian Space Program’ is:
A) Homi J. Bhabha
B) Vikram Sarabhai
C) APJ Abdul Kalam
D) Satish Dhawan
Correct Answer: B) Vikram Sarabhai
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Dr. Vikram Ambalal Sarabhai is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Space Program.’ He founded the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and was instrumental in establishing the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad. Under his leadership, India’s first rocket was launched from Thumba near Thiruvananthapuram in 1963. He convinced the government that India needed a space program for development purposes, particularly for satellite communication and remote sensing. After his untimely death in 1971, India’s first satellite Aryabhata was successfully launched in 1975. The Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) in Thiruvananthapuram is named in his honor. Homi Bhabha is the father of India’s nuclear program, APJ Abdul Kalam is known as the Missile Man, and Satish Dhawan was the second chairman of ISRO.
Question 44
The Bharat Ratna award was instituted in:
A) 1947
B) 1954
C) 1960
D) 1965
Correct Answer: B) 1954
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian award, was instituted on 2nd January 1954. It is awarded for exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavor including art, literature, science, public service, and sports (added in 2011). The award consists of a peepal leaf-shaped medallion with the national emblem and ‘Bharat Ratna’ inscribed in Devanagari script, along with a citation signed by the President. Recipients receive no monetary grant but have precedence in the order of precedence. The first recipients in 1954 were C. Rajagopalachari, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and C.V. Raman. The award was briefly suspended from July 1977 to January 1980. A maximum of three awards can be given in any year. Notable recipients include Mother Teresa, Nelson Mandela (non-Indian), Sachin Tendulkar (first sportsperson), and Pranab Mukherjee.
Question 45
The Olympic Games are held every:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years
Correct Answer: C) 4 years
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The modern Olympic Games are held every 4 years. This four-year period between Olympics is called an Olympiad. The tradition of holding Olympics every four years dates back to ancient Greece. The modern Olympics were revived in 1896 by Baron Pierre de Coubertin, and the first modern Olympics were held in Athens, Greece. The Summer Olympics and Winter Olympics are each held every four years but are staggered, with Winter Olympics occurring two years after the Summer Olympics. For example, if Summer Olympics are held in 2024, the next Winter Olympics will be in 2026, and the next Summer Olympics in 2028. The Olympic motto is ‘Citius, Altius, Fortius’ (Faster, Higher, Stronger), to which ‘Communiter’ (Together) was added in 2021. India first participated in Olympics in 1900 and has won over 35 medals, with hockey being historically the most successful sport.
Question 46
The autobiography ‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is written by:
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Nelson Mandela
C) Martin Luther King Jr.
D) Barack Obama
Correct Answer: B) Nelson Mandela
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
‘Long Walk to Freedom’ is the autobiography of Nelson Mandela, published in 1994. The book chronicles Mandela’s life from his childhood in a rural village to his inauguration as the first democratically elected president of South Africa. It covers his education, early political activism, 27 years of imprisonment on Robben Island, his release in 1990, and the negotiations that led to the end of apartheid. The title refers to the long journey to freedom not just for Mandela personally, but for all South Africans. Mandela spent 27 years in prison (1962-1990) for his anti-apartheid activities. He was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1993 and the Bharat Ratna in 1990 (as a non-Indian). His autobiography has been translated into many languages and was adapted into a film in 2013. The book is an inspiring account of courage, resilience, and the triumph of the human spirit.
Question 47
The Gateway of India is located in:
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkata
D) Chennai
Correct Answer: B) Mumbai
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Gateway of India is an iconic monument located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, on the waterfront of Apollo Bunder. It was built to commemorate the visit of King George V and Queen Mary to Mumbai (then Bombay) in 1911. The foundation stone was laid on 31st March 1911, and the monument was completed in 1924. It was designed by Scottish architect George Wittet in the Indo-Saracenic style, combining elements of Hindu and Muslim architectural styles. The monument is built of yellow basalt and concrete and stands 26 meters (85 feet) high. The Gateway has four turrets and intricate latticework. It overlooks the Arabian Sea and has become one of Mumbai’s most famous landmarks. Historically, it served as the symbolic ceremonial entrance to India for important colonial personnel. The last British troops to leave India after independence departed through the Gateway in 1948.
Question 48
The Indian Standard Time (IST) is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) by:
A) 4 hours 30 minutes
B) 5 hours 30 minutes
C) 6 hours
D) 6 hours 30 minutes
Correct Answer: B) 5 hours 30 minutes
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Indian Standard Time (IST) is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), also known as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC+5:30). IST is based on the longitude of 82.5Β°E (82Β°30’E), which passes through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh. This standard meridian was chosen as it lies approximately in the middle of India’s geographical extent. India spans approximately 30 degrees of longitude (68Β°7’E to 97Β°25’E), which theoretically corresponds to about 2 hours of time difference between the easternmost and westernmost parts. However, India follows a single time zone for the entire country to maintain administrative convenience and national unity. When it is 12:00 noon GMT, it is 5:30 PM IST. Some countries like China also follow a single time zone despite their large geographical extent, while others like the USA have multiple time zones.
Question 49
The first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal was:
A) P.T. Usha
B) Karnam Malleswari
C) Mary Kom
D) Saina Nehwal
Correct Answer: B) Karnam Malleswari
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
Karnam Malleswari became the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal when she won a bronze medal in weightlifting (69 kg category) at the 2000 Sydney Olympics. She lifted a total of 240 kg (110 kg in snatch and 130 kg in clean and jerk). Born in Andhra Pradesh in 1975, she had already won multiple world championship medals before her Olympic triumph. Malleswari was awarded the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 1995 and Padma Shri in 1999. Her achievement paved the way for future Indian women athletes. P.T. Usha, though highly successful, narrowly missed an Olympic medal (4th place in 1984). Mary Kom won bronze in boxing at 2012 London Olympics, and Saina Nehwal won bronze in badminton at 2012 London Olympics. Since Malleswari, several Indian women have won Olympic medals including PV Sindhu (silver and bronze in badminton) and Mirabai Chanu (silver in weightlifting).
Question 50
The Param Vir Chakra is awarded for:
A) Distinguished service in sports
B) Conspicuous gallantry in war
C) Excellence in literature
D) Social service
Correct Answer: B) Conspicuous gallantry in war
πŸ“– Detailed Explanation
The Param Vir Chakra (PVC) is India’s highest military decoration, awarded for displaying conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy, whether on land, at sea, or in the air. It is equivalent to the Victoria Cross in the UK and the Medal of Honor in the USA. The award was instituted on 26th January 1950, the day India became a republic. The first PVC was awarded posthumously to Major Somnath Sharma for his bravery during the 1947 Indo-Pak war. Only 21 PVCs have been awarded to date, with 14 awarded posthumously. The medal is circular, made of bronze, and has ‘Param Vir Chakra’ inscribed in Hindi and English. Recipients are entitled to use ‘PVC’ as a post-nominal and receive a monthly allowance. Notable recipients include Captain Vikram Batra (Kargil War, 1999) and Subedar Major Yogendra Singh Yadav (youngest recipient at age 19, Kargil War, 1999, and one of the few to survive).

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