WBPSC Miscellaneous Services Preliminary Mock Test – Set 6
Full Length Mock Test — 100 Questions (75 General Studies + 25 Arithmetic) | 200 Marks | Negative: 0.66
Questions: 100
General Studies: 75
Arithmetic: 25
10 Questions / Page
Score: 0.00 / 200 | Attempted: 0 / 100
1. Consider the following statements about the Regulating Act of 1773:
1. It created the office of Governor-General of Bengal.
2. It established a Supreme Court at Calcutta.
3. It ended the East India Company's trade monopoly with India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation: The Act created the Governor-General of Bengal and established the Supreme Court at Calcutta. It did not end the Company's trade monopoly.
2. With reference to the Ilbert Bill controversy, which one of the following was the most direct issue involved?
Explanation: The controversy centred on extending to qualified Indian judges jurisdiction over European British subjects in criminal cases.
3. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935:
1. It provided for an All-India Federation.
2. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces.
3. It introduced responsible government at the Centre.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Explanation: The Act provided for a federation and provincial autonomy, thereby ending dyarchy in provinces. Its proposed federation and responsible central government did not actually come into operation.
4. The Permanent Settlement of 1793 is best distinguished from the Ryotwari system because under the Permanent Settlement:
Explanation: Under the Permanent Settlement, zamindars were recognized as revenue-collecting proprietors and the land revenue demand was permanently fixed.
5. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Young Bengal — Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
2. Brahmo Samaj — Raja Rammohan Roy
3. Satyashodhak Samaj — Jyotirao Phule
4. Prarthana Samaj — Atmaram Pandurang
Select the correct answer.
Explanation: All four pairs are correctly matched.
6. Who among the following was associated with the founding of the Indian Association in 1876 and later became a prominent leader of the nationalist movement in Bengal?
Explanation: Surendranath Banerjea, with Ananda Mohan Bose, founded the Indian Association in 1876.
7. Consider the following events:
1. Surat Split
2. Lucknow Pact
3. Home Rule Movement
4. Champaran Satyagraha
Which is the correct chronological order?
Explanation: The events occurred in 1907, 1916, 1916–17 and 1917 respectively; the Home Rule movement began before the Lucknow Pact.
8. The transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi was announced at the Delhi Durbar of 1911 during the reign of:
Explanation: The announcement was made during the viceroyalty of Lord Hardinge II in 1911.
9. Which one of the following was a distinctive feature of the Lucknow Pact of 1916?
Explanation: Congress accepted the principle of separate electorates for Muslims as part of the agreement.
10. The 'Drain of Wealth' theory developed by Dadabhai Naoroji primarily argued that:
Explanation: Naoroji argued that economic resources were continuously transferred from India to Britain through several channels without equivalent return.
11. Consider the following statements about the Buddhist Councils:
1. The First Council is traditionally associated with Rajagriha.
2. The Second Council is traditionally associated with Vaishali.
3. The Third Council is traditionally associated with Pataliputra under Ashoka.
Which are correct?
Explanation: All three statements correspond to the traditional locations and associations of the first three councils.
12. The Prayag Prashasti, an important source for the reign of Samudragupta, was composed by:
Explanation: Harisena, a court poet and official of Samudragupta, composed the Prayag Prashasti.
13. Which of the following best explains why the Gupta period is often associated with advances in classical Indian mathematics and astronomy?
Explanation: The period saw major developments in mathematics and astronomy, including Aryabhata's work.
14. The Uttaramerur inscriptions are particularly important for understanding:
Explanation: The inscriptions provide detailed evidence about the organization and functioning of local self-government in Chola villages.
15. Which ruler is most closely associated with the construction of the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur?
Explanation: Rajaraja Chola I commissioned the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur.
16. Consider the following statements about the Mughal mansabdari system:
1. Mansab denoted rank or position.
2. Zat indicated the personal rank of a mansabdar.
3. Sawar indicated the cavalry obligation associated with the rank.
Which are correct?
Explanation: All three statements correctly describe key elements of the mansabdari system.
17. Which of the following was NOT a feature of Akbar's religious policy?
Explanation: Akbar's policy is generally associated with tolerance and Sulh-i-kul, not compulsory conversion.
18. The Battle of Plassey (1757) became decisive for the English East India Company in Bengal primarily because it:
Explanation: The victory enabled the Company to exercise decisive political influence in Bengal; it did not immediately transfer Bengal to the Crown.
19. Consider the following pairs:
1. Pitt's India Act — Board of Control
2. Charter Act 1813 — End of Company trade monopoly except specified areas
3. Charter Act 1833 — End of Company's commercial activities
Which are correctly matched?
Explanation: All three are correctly matched in broad constitutional and commercial terms.
20. Which of the following best describes the significance of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment of 1976 made extensive changes, including additions to the Preamble.
21. Consider the following statements about Article 32:
1. It empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. Dr B.R. Ambedkar described it as the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
3. It is itself a Fundamental Right.
Which are correct?
Explanation: Article 32 is a Fundamental Right and provides a constitutional remedy before the Supreme Court; Ambedkar famously called it the heart and soul.
22. Which writ is primarily used to secure release from unlawful detention?
Explanation: Habeas Corpus literally concerns production of the detained person before the court and is used against unlawful detention.
23. Consider the following statements regarding a Money Bill:
1. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend it but may recommend changes.
3. The Speaker's decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final under the Constitution.
Which are correct?
Explanation: All three statements are constitutionally correct, subject to the constitutional procedure for Money Bills.
24. The power of the President to promulgate an Ordinance when both Houses of Parliament are not in session is derived from:
Explanation: Article 123 confers the Ordinance-making power on the President.
25. Which of the following is correctly matched with the relevant Constitutional Article?
Explanation: Articles 280, 324 and 315 deal with the Finance Commission, Election Commission and Public Service Commissions respectively.
26. Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha:
1. It is a permanent House.
2. One-third of its members retire every second year.
3. The Vice-President of India is its ex officio Chairman.
Which are correct?
Explanation: All three statements are correct.
27. Which Constitutional provision directs the State to organize village panchayats as units of self-government?
Explanation: Article 40 is a Directive Principle concerning village panchayats.
28. The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution by the:
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 introduced the anti-defection provisions in the Tenth Schedule.
29. Which one of the following is NOT a Fundamental Right at present?
Explanation: The Right to Property ceased to be a Fundamental Right after the 44th Amendment and is now a constitutional legal right under Article 300A.
30. Under Article 50, the State is directed to:
Explanation: Article 50 directs separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.
31. The Narmada and Tapi differ from most major peninsular rivers because they:
Explanation: Both are major west-flowing rivers associated with rift-valley courses.
32. Consider the following statements about the Indian monsoon:
1. Differential heating of land and sea contributes to monsoon circulation.
2. The Tibetan Plateau influences upper-air circulation.
3. El Niño conditions can affect the strength of the Indian summer monsoon.
Which are correct?
Explanation: All three factors are recognized as important influences on monsoon variability.
33. Which soil type is most closely associated with the Deccan Trap region and is especially suitable for cotton cultivation?
Explanation: Black cotton soil is derived largely from basaltic rocks of the Deccan Trap region.
34. The Sundarbans are primarily characterized by:
Explanation: The Sundarbans are a tidal mangrove ecosystem in the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta.
35. Which of the following West Bengal rivers is a major tributary of the Ganga and is associated with the Murshidabad–Malda region?
Explanation: The Mahananda is a major tributary of the Ganga and flows through northern West Bengal before joining the Ganga system.
36. Consider the following pairs of West Bengal locations and associated features:
1. Darjeeling — Tea
2. Durgapur — Steel and engineering industries
3. Digha — Sea beach tourism
4. Bishnupur — Terracotta temples
Which are correctly matched?
Explanation: All four pairs are correctly matched.
37. The Farakka Barrage is located on which river?
Explanation: The Farakka Barrage is built across the Ganga in Murshidabad district.
38. Which one of the following is a correct characteristic of laterite soil?
Explanation: Laterite develops under intense weathering and leaching in warm, wet conditions.
39. The Coriolis force is zero at the:
Explanation: The Coriolis parameter is proportional to the sine of latitude and becomes zero at the Equator.
40. Which of the following is the correct sequence of major Himalayan ranges from south to north?
Explanation: From south to north, the broad sequence is Shiwalik, Lesser Himalaya (Himachal), and Greater Himalaya (Himadri).
41. Consider the following statements about inflation:
1. Demand-pull inflation can arise when aggregate demand exceeds productive capacity.
2. Cost-push inflation can result from a rise in input costs.
3. Deflation means a fall in the rate of inflation while prices continue to rise.
Which are correct?
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. A fall in the inflation rate is disinflation, not deflation.
42. Which institution is responsible for conducting monetary policy in India under the statutory monetary policy framework?
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India conducts monetary policy through its Monetary Policy Committee framework.
43. Which of the following is included in India's GDP at market prices?
Explanation: GDP measures the value of final goods and services produced within the domestic territory during the period, using the relevant valuation concept.
44. A rise in the repo rate, other things remaining equal, is generally expected to:
Explanation: A higher repo rate generally tightens monetary conditions and can raise lending rates.
45. Which of the following is a capital receipt of the government?
Explanation: Government borrowings are capital receipts because they create liabilities.
46. Consider the following statements about the Human Development Index (HDI):
1. It incorporates indicators of health, education and income.
2. It is published by the UNDP.
3. It is identical to India's GDP growth rate.
Which are correct?
Explanation: HDI combines health, education and income dimensions and is published by UNDP; it is not the same as GDP growth.
47. Which of the following is an example of a progressive tax in principle?
Explanation: A progressive tax has a rising average tax burden as income increases.
48. The balance of payments records transactions between:
Explanation: The balance of payments systematically records economic transactions between residents and non-residents.
49. Which vitamin deficiency is classically associated with megaloblastic anaemia and may result from impaired DNA synthesis?
Explanation: Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause megaloblastic anaemia due to impaired DNA synthesis.
50. Consider the following statements about enzymes:
1. Enzymes generally act as biological catalysts.
2. Most enzymes are proteins, although some RNA molecules also have catalytic activity.
3. Enzymes are permanently consumed in the reactions they catalyse.
Which are correct?
Explanation: Enzymes catalyse reactions without being permanently consumed; most are proteins, while catalytic RNA molecules are ribozymes.
51. In the human nephron, the major site of selective reabsorption of useful solutes and much water is the:
Explanation: The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs a large proportion of filtered water, ions, glucose and amino acids.
52. Which of the following blood vessels normally carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?
Explanation: Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
53. Consider the following statements about vaccination:
1. Vaccines can induce immunological memory.
2. A booster dose can strengthen or renew an immune response.
3. All vaccines provide lifelong sterilising immunity against infection.
Which are correct?
Explanation: Vaccination can induce memory and boosters can enhance protection; not every vaccine provides lifelong sterilising immunity.
54. Which part of the brain is most directly associated with maintenance of posture and coordination of voluntary movements?
Explanation: The cerebellum coordinates movement and contributes to balance and posture.
55. A person with blood group AB has:
Explanation: In the ABO system, AB individuals have A and B antigens on red cells and normally lack anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma.
56. Which of the following is the correct sequence of increasing frequency in the electromagnetic spectrum?
Explanation: Frequency increases from radio waves through microwaves, infrared and visible light toward ultraviolet, X-rays and gamma rays.
57. An optical instrument used to measure the temperature of a hot object from its thermal radiation is a:
Explanation: An optical pyrometer estimates high temperatures from the thermal radiation emitted by a hot object.
58. Which law explains the relation between induced electromotive force and the rate of change of magnetic flux?
Explanation: Faraday's law states that induced emf is related to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
59. Consider the following statements about semiconductors:
1. Their electrical conductivity generally lies between that of conductors and insulators.
2. Adding controlled impurities can alter their conductivity.
3. A pure semiconductor at absolute zero behaves as a perfect conductor.
Which are correct?
Explanation: Semiconductors have intermediate conductivity and their conductivity can be controlled by doping. At absolute zero an intrinsic semiconductor behaves as an insulator, not a conductor.
60. A satellite remains in a stable circular orbit around Earth because:
Explanation: Gravity provides the centripetal acceleration while the satellite's tangential velocity causes continuous free fall around Earth.
61. Which protected area of West Bengal is particularly important for the conservation of the Red Panda and lies along the Singalila range?
Explanation: Singalila National Park in the Darjeeling Himalaya is an important Red Panda habitat.
62. Which West Bengal national park is especially known for the Indian one-horned rhinoceros and is associated with the Torsa floodplain?
Explanation: Jaldapara National Park is a major rhino habitat in the Torsa floodplain.
63. The 'Bishnupur Gharana' is most directly associated with which form of Indian classical music?
Explanation: The Bishnupur Gharana is a Hindustani classical music tradition of Bengal, with a strong dhrupad influence.
64. Which pair is correctly matched?
Explanation: Purulia is renowned for its Chhau tradition. The other pairings are incorrect.
65. The Chhau dance tradition of Purulia is characterized by:
Explanation: Purulia Chhau is famous for elaborate masks and vigorous, martial-style movement.
66. Which of the following is a major tributary of the Damodar River in West Bengal?
Explanation: The Barakar is a major tributary of the Damodar and joins it near Dishergarh region.
67. The Farakka Barrage Project is primarily associated with the objective of:
Explanation: The project was built to divert a portion of Ganga flow toward the Bhagirathi-Hooghly system, among other related purposes.
68. Which one of the following statements about the Sundarbans is correct?
Explanation: The Sundarbans is a tidal mangrove ecosystem shared by India and Bangladesh and is famous for its Royal Bengal Tiger population.
69. The 'Purna Swaraj' resolution was adopted at the Indian National Congress session held at:
Explanation: The Lahore session of 1929 adopted Purna Swaraj as the Congress goal.
70. The Karachi session of the Indian National Congress in 1931 is particularly remembered for its resolution on:
Explanation: The Karachi session adopted an important resolution on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme.
71. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in 1885 at:
Explanation: The first INC session was held in Bombay in 1885 under W.C. Bonnerjee.
72. Who among the following was the first woman president of the Indian National Congress?
Explanation: Annie Besant became the first woman president of the Indian National Congress in 1917.
73. Which statement about the Swadeshi Movement is most accurate?
Explanation: The movement developed in response to the 1905 partition of Bengal and promoted boycott, national education and indigenous enterprise.
74. Which of the following combinations is correct?
1. Article 343 — Official language of the Union
2. Article 350A — Facilities for instruction in mother tongue at primary stage for linguistic minorities
3. Article 351 — Directive for development of the Hindi language
Select the correct answer.
Explanation: All three constitutional provisions are correctly matched.
75. Consider the following statements about acid rain:
1. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are important precursor gases.
2. Acid deposition can affect aquatic ecosystems and soil chemistry.
3. Pure rainwater has a pH of exactly 7 under atmospheric conditions.
Which are correct?
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Natural rain is slightly acidic because dissolved CO2 forms carbonic acid, so its pH is normally below 7.
76. A sum of ₹8,000 is divided into two parts and invested at 8% and 12% simple interest respectively. If the total annual interest is ₹800, the amount invested at 12% is:
Explanation: Let x be invested at 12%. 0.12x + 0.08(8000−x)=800, giving x=₹4,000.
77. The average of 7 consecutive integers is 24. What is the product of the smallest and largest integers?
Explanation: The integers are 21,22,23,24,25,26,27. Product = 21×27 = 567.
78. A train crosses a 240 m platform in 24 seconds and crosses a pole in 12 seconds. What is the length of the train?
Explanation: Let train length be L. Since speed=L/12 and (L+240)/speed=24, L+240=2L, so L=240 m.
79. A man can complete a work in 18 days. After working alone for 6 days, he is joined by another man who can complete the whole work in 9 days. In how many more days will the remaining work be completed?
Explanation: First man's 6-day work is 1/3, leaving 2/3. Combined rate=1/18+1/9=1/6. Time=(2/3)/(1/6)=4 days.
80. A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts of 15% and 10% on the marked price. If the marked price is ₹4,000, the selling price is:
Explanation: Selling price = 4000×0.85×0.90 = ₹3,060.
81. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. The final value is 96. The original number was:
Explanation: Net factor = 1.2×0.8=0.96. Original = 96/0.96 = 100.
82. The ratio of incomes of A and B is 5:7 and their expenditures are in the ratio 3:5. If each saves ₹2,000, A's income is:
Explanation: Let incomes be 5x,7x and expenditures 3y,5y. Equating savings gives 5x−3y=7x−5y=2000, so 2y=2x, y=x. Hence A income=5x and 5x−3x=2000, x=1000, so A=₹5000.
83. A sum amounts to ₹6,600 in 2 years at 10% simple interest per annum. The principal is:
Explanation: At 10% simple interest for 2 years, amount = 120% of principal. Principal = 6600/1.20 = ₹5,500.
84. A boat travels 30 km downstream in 2 hours and the same distance upstream in 3 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is:
Explanation: Downstream speed=15 km/h and upstream speed=10 km/h. Still-water speed=(15+10)/2=12.5 km/h.
85. If x + 1/x = 5, then x² + 1/x² equals:
Explanation: Squaring: x²+2+1/x²=25, so x²+1/x²=23.
86. The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their LCM is 420. If one number is 60, the other number is:
Explanation: Product of two numbers = HCF×LCM = 12×420=5040. Other number=5040/60=84.
87. A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio 7:3. If 20 litres of the mixture are removed and replaced with 20 litres of water, the ratio becomes 7:5. What was the original quantity of the mixture?
Explanation: Let total be V. Milk removed = 14/100 V. Final milk = 0.70V×0.8=0.56V; final water =0.30V×0.8+20=0.24V+20. Ratio 7:5 gives 0.56V/(0.24V+20)=7/5, yielding V=140 L.
88. A can do a work in 20 days and B in 30 days. They work together for 6 days, after which A leaves. B completes the remaining work in:
Explanation: Together they complete 6×(1/20+1/30)=1/2. The remaining half is completed by B at 1/30 per day, requiring 15 days.
89. The area of a sector of a circle of radius 14 cm and central angle 90°, taking π=22/7, is:
Explanation: Sector area = 90/360 × 22/7 × 14² = 154 cm².
90. A trader gains 20% by selling an article for ₹3,600. If he wants to gain 12.5%, the selling price should be:
Explanation: Cost price = 3600/1.2=3000. At 12.5% profit, SP=3000×1.125=₹3375.
91. The average of 10 numbers is 32. If one number is excluded, the average of the remaining 9 becomes 30. The excluded number is:
Explanation: Original total=320; remaining total=270; excluded number=50.
92. A sum is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:5. If C receives ₹2,400 more than A, the total sum is:
Explanation: Difference is 3 parts = ₹2400, so 1 part=₹800. Total 10 parts=₹8000.
93. The greatest four-digit number divisible by 24, 36 and 54 is:
Explanation: LCM(24,36,54)=216. The greatest four-digit multiple is 216×46=9936.
94. A principal becomes ₹7,260 in 2 years at 10% compound interest per annum, compounded annually. The principal is:
Explanation: P×1.1²=7260, so P=7260/1.21=₹6000.
95. The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 5:3. If its area is 1,500 cm², its perimeter is:
Explanation: Let sides be 5x and 3x. Then 15x²=1500, so x=10. Hence sides are 50 cm and 30 cm; perimeter=160 cm.
96. A pipe can fill a tank in 12 minutes and another pipe can empty it in 18 minutes. If both are opened together, the tank will be filled in:
Explanation: Net rate=1/12−1/18=1/36, so filling time is 36 minutes.
97. If 3x − y = 11 and x + y = 7, then x − y equals:
Explanation: Adding the equations gives 4x=18, so x=4.5 and y=2.5; hence x−y=2.
98. A trader marks an article 40% above cost price and allows a discount of 15%. His profit percentage is:
Explanation: SP factor=1.40×0.85=1.19, so profit=19%.
99. The compound interest on a sum at 10% per annum for 2 years is ₹1,260. The principal is:
Explanation: At 10% for two years, compound interest is 21% of principal. P=1260/0.21=₹6,000.
100. A, B and C invest ₹20,000, ₹30,000 and ₹50,000 respectively for 12, 8 and 6 months. If the total profit is ₹52,000, C's share is:
Explanation: Capital-time products are 240000:240000:300000 = 4:4:5. C gets 5/13 of ₹52,000 = ₹20,000.
Scoring: Correct = +2 marks; Wrong = −0.66 mark; Unanswered = 0. The negative-marking figure is retained as the mock-test scoring convention used in this series; check the latest WBPSC notification before treating it as the live examination rule.