📋 MOCK TEST – SET 3
WBSSC / Competitive Exam Preparation | Total: 50 Questions | Click any option to see the answer & explanation
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1 – Q.20)
Q.1. The Brahmaputra river is known by which name in Tibet?
Answer: (3) Yarlung Tsangpo
The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet as the Yarlung Tsangpo. It enters Arunachal Pradesh as Dihang/Siang, flows through Assam as Brahmaputra, and enters Bangladesh as Jamuna.
The Brahmaputra originates in Tibet as the Yarlung Tsangpo. It enters Arunachal Pradesh as Dihang/Siang, flows through Assam as Brahmaputra, and enters Bangladesh as Jamuna.
Q.2. Kaziranga National Park in Assam is famous for which animal?
Answer: (3) One-horned Rhinoceros
Kaziranga National Park (Assam) is a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for the Indian One-horned Rhinoceros. It has the world’s largest population of this species. Wild Ass is found in Rann of Kutch; Lion in Gir Forest.
Kaziranga National Park (Assam) is a UNESCO World Heritage Site famous for the Indian One-horned Rhinoceros. It has the world’s largest population of this species. Wild Ass is found in Rann of Kutch; Lion in Gir Forest.
Q.3. Which river is known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”?
Answer: (2) Koshi
The Koshi River is called the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to its devastating floods every year in Bihar. The Damodar was once called “Sorrow of Bengal” (before DVC was built). Koshi originates in Nepal and is a major tributary of the Ganga.
The Koshi River is called the “Sorrow of Bihar” due to its devastating floods every year in Bihar. The Damodar was once called “Sorrow of Bengal” (before DVC was built). Koshi originates in Nepal and is a major tributary of the Ganga.
Q.4. The first Biosphere Reserve established in India (1986) is:
Answer: (4) Nilgiris
The Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve established in India in 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. It is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
The Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve was the first biosphere reserve established in India in 1986. It is located in the Western Ghats covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka. It is part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere Reserves.
Q.5. Bhakra Nangal Project is constructed across which river?
Answer: (2) Sutlej
The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh. It is the highest straight gravity dam in Asia (226 m). The reservoir formed is called Gobind Sagar Lake. It is a joint project of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
The Bhakra Nangal Dam is built on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh. It is the highest straight gravity dam in Asia (226 m). The reservoir formed is called Gobind Sagar Lake. It is a joint project of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
Q.6. Where do rivers Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join to form the Ganga?
Answer: (3) Devprayag
Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet at Devprayag (Uttarakhand) to form the Ganga. Other Panch Prayags: Vishnuprayag (Dhauliganga+Alaknanda), Nandaprayag (Nandakini+Alaknanda), Karanprayag (Pindar+Alaknanda), Rudraprayag (Mandakini+Alaknanda).
Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet at Devprayag (Uttarakhand) to form the Ganga. Other Panch Prayags: Vishnuprayag (Dhauliganga+Alaknanda), Nandaprayag (Nandakini+Alaknanda), Karanprayag (Pindar+Alaknanda), Rudraprayag (Mandakini+Alaknanda).
Q.7. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended in which year?
Answer: (3) 1976
The Preamble has been amended only once — by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 during Indira Gandhi’s government. Three words were added: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
The Preamble has been amended only once — by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 during Indira Gandhi’s government. Three words were added: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Q.8. The words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’, and ‘Integrity’ were added to the Preamble by which amendment?
Answer: (2) 42nd Amendment
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (also called the “Mini Constitution”) added Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored some provisions altered by the 42nd. The 52nd Amendment (1985) added the Anti-Defection Law.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (also called the “Mini Constitution”) added Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble. The 44th Amendment (1978) restored some provisions altered by the 42nd. The 52nd Amendment (1985) added the Anti-Defection Law.
Q.9. India is described as an “indestructible Union of destructible states” because:
Answer: (2) Parliament can redraw state boundaries without states’ consent
Under Article 3, Parliament can form new states, alter boundaries, or rename states without the consent of the state concerned. Hence India is called an “indestructible Union of destructible states.” In contrast, USA is described as an “indestructible Union of indestructible states.”
Under Article 3, Parliament can form new states, alter boundaries, or rename states without the consent of the state concerned. Hence India is called an “indestructible Union of destructible states.” In contrast, USA is described as an “indestructible Union of indestructible states.”
Q.10. The first linguistic state formed in India was:
Answer: (3) Andhra (1953)
The State of Andhra was the first linguistic state carved out of Madras State in 1953, after Potti Sriramulu died on a 56-day hunger strike demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state. This led to the formation of the States Reorganisation Commission (Fazl Ali Commission) in 1953.
The State of Andhra was the first linguistic state carved out of Madras State in 1953, after Potti Sriramulu died on a 56-day hunger strike demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state. This led to the formation of the States Reorganisation Commission (Fazl Ali Commission) in 1953.
Q.11. Goa became a full-fledged state in which year?
Answer: (3) 1987
Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1961 (by police/military action) and made a Union Territory along with Daman & Diu by the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. Goa became the 25th state of India in 1987. Daman & Diu became a separate UT at that point.
Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1961 (by police/military action) and made a Union Territory along with Daman & Diu by the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. Goa became the 25th state of India in 1987. Daman & Diu became a separate UT at that point.
Q.12. The Sundarbans forest is a type of:
Answer: (3) Mangrove Forest
The Sundarbans is the world’s largest mangrove forest, located in the delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra in West Bengal and Bangladesh. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger. The name comes from the Sundari tree (Heritiera fomes).
The Sundarbans is the world’s largest mangrove forest, located in the delta of Ganga-Brahmaputra in West Bengal and Bangladesh. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and famous for the Royal Bengal Tiger. The name comes from the Sundari tree (Heritiera fomes).
Q.13. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) ruled that:
Answer: (3) Preamble can be amended but basic features cannot be altered
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court established the Basic Structure Doctrine. It ruled the Preamble IS a part of the Constitution and CAN be amended, but the basic features (sovereignty, democracy, secularism, federal character, etc.) CANNOT be destroyed even by Parliament.
In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court established the Basic Structure Doctrine. It ruled the Preamble IS a part of the Constitution and CAN be amended, but the basic features (sovereignty, democracy, secularism, federal character, etc.) CANNOT be destroyed even by Parliament.
Q.14. The Chipko Movement is related to:
Answer: (2) Forest conservation
The Chipko Movement (1973) was a forest conservation movement started in Uttarakhand. Villagers, mainly women led by Gaura Devi, hugged trees (“Chipko” = to hug/stick) to prevent felling by contractors. Sunderlal Bahuguna popularized it globally. It was inspired by the Bishnoi Movement of Rajasthan.
The Chipko Movement (1973) was a forest conservation movement started in Uttarakhand. Villagers, mainly women led by Gaura Devi, hugged trees (“Chipko” = to hug/stick) to prevent felling by contractors. Sunderlal Bahuguna popularized it globally. It was inspired by the Bishnoi Movement of Rajasthan.
Q.15. Which state has the largest forest coverage area in India?
Answer: (2) Madhya Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in India in terms of total area. It is called the “Heart of India” and is also known for its tiger reserves (Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Pench). Note: In terms of percentage of geographical area under forest, Mizoram leads.
Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in India in terms of total area. It is called the “Heart of India” and is also known for its tiger reserves (Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Pench). Note: In terms of percentage of geographical area under forest, Mizoram leads.
Q.16. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act (2015) relates to:
Answer: (2) Exchange of territories with Bangladesh
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh. India transferred 111 enclaves to Bangladesh while Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves to India. It amended the First Schedule for Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, and Tripura.
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 gave effect to the Land Boundary Agreement with Bangladesh. India transferred 111 enclaves to Bangladesh while Bangladesh transferred 51 enclaves to India. It amended the First Schedule for Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, and Tripura.
Q.17. Vembanad — the longest lake in India — is located in which state?
Answer: (4) Kerala
Vembanad Lake is the longest lake in India and is located in Kerala. It is also the largest lake in Kerala. The famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held on Vembanad Lake at Punnamada. It is a Ramsar Wetland Site. Chilika Lake (Odisha) is the largest brackish water lake in India.
Vembanad Lake is the longest lake in India and is located in Kerala. It is also the largest lake in Kerala. The famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race is held on Vembanad Lake at Punnamada. It is a Ramsar Wetland Site. Chilika Lake (Odisha) is the largest brackish water lake in India.
Q.18. The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established in:
Answer: (2) 1948
The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established in 1948 by an Act of Parliament, modeled on the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) of USA. The Damodar River, flowing through Jharkhand and West Bengal, was earlier called “Sorrow of Bengal” due to devastating floods. DVC controls floods and generates hydroelectric power.
The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was established in 1948 by an Act of Parliament, modeled on the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) of USA. The Damodar River, flowing through Jharkhand and West Bengal, was earlier called “Sorrow of Bengal” due to devastating floods. DVC controls floods and generates hydroelectric power.
Q.19. Jim Corbett National Park — the first national park of India (1936) — is situated in:
Answer: (1) Uttarakhand
Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936, is India’s oldest national park. It was originally called Hailey National Park, later renamed after renowned hunter-turned-conservationist Jim Corbett. Located in Nainital district, Uttarakhand, it was also the first park to come under Project Tiger (1973).
Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936, is India’s oldest national park. It was originally called Hailey National Park, later renamed after renowned hunter-turned-conservationist Jim Corbett. Located in Nainital district, Uttarakhand, it was also the first park to come under Project Tiger (1973).
Q.20. The Telangana state was created in which year?
Answer: (3) 2014
Telangana became the 29th state of India on 2 June 2014, carved out of Andhra Pradesh by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014. Hyderabad is the joint capital of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for a period of 10 years. K. Chandrashekar Rao (KCR) became its first Chief Minister.
Telangana became the 29th state of India on 2 June 2014, carved out of Andhra Pradesh by the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014. Hyderabad is the joint capital of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh for a period of 10 years. K. Chandrashekar Rao (KCR) became its first Chief Minister.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21 – Q.30)
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘BENEVOLENT’:
Answer: (2) Charitable
Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly, generous. Synonym: Charitable, Kind, Generous, Philanthropic. Antonym: Malevolent (wishing harm). Example: “The benevolent old man donated to the poor.” Hostile means unfriendly (antonym).
Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly, generous. Synonym: Charitable, Kind, Generous, Philanthropic. Antonym: Malevolent (wishing harm). Example: “The benevolent old man donated to the poor.” Hostile means unfriendly (antonym).
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘TRANSPARENT’:
Answer: (3) Opaque
Transparent means allowing light to pass through; easily seen through. Its antonym is Opaque (not allowing light to pass through, not transparent). Clear and Glassy are synonyms of transparent. Example: “Glass is transparent; a brick wall is opaque.”
Transparent means allowing light to pass through; easily seen through. Its antonym is Opaque (not allowing light to pass through, not transparent). Clear and Glassy are synonyms of transparent. Example: “Glass is transparent; a brick wall is opaque.”
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2) Accommodate
Correct spelling: Accommodate (double ‘c’ and double ‘m’). Trick: Think “Accommodate has two Cs and two Ms — it can accommodate both!” Meaning: to provide space/room for someone, or to adapt to needs.
Correct spelling: Accommodate (double ‘c’ and double ‘m’). Trick: Think “Accommodate has two Cs and two Ms — it can accommodate both!” Meaning: to provide space/room for someone, or to adapt to needs.
Q.24. Fill in the blank: She was very ________ of her younger brother.
Answer: (2) jealous of
The correct preposition with jealous is always “of”. Example: “She was jealous of her friend’s success.” Similarly: proud of, fond of, afraid of, ashamed of, aware of, capable of — all use “of”.
The correct preposition with jealous is always “of”. Example: “She was jealous of her friend’s success.” Similarly: proud of, fond of, afraid of, ashamed of, aware of, capable of — all use “of”.
Q.25. The plural of ‘Phenomenon’ is:
Answer: (3) Phenomena
Phenomenon → Phenomena (Greek/Latin origin plural). Similarly: Criterion → Criteria, Datum → Data, Medium → Media, Bacterium → Bacteria, Curriculum → Curricula. These are commonly tested in grammar sections of competitive exams.
Phenomenon → Phenomena (Greek/Latin origin plural). Similarly: Criterion → Criteria, Datum → Data, Medium → Media, Bacterium → Bacteria, Curriculum → Curricula. These are commonly tested in grammar sections of competitive exams.
Q.26. Identify the meaning of the idiom: “To bite the bullet”
Answer: (2) To endure a painful situation bravely
“Bite the bullet” means to bravely accept/endure a painful or difficult situation. Origin: In early surgery without anesthesia, patients were given a bullet to bite during painful operations. Example: “Just bite the bullet and go to the dentist.”
“Bite the bullet” means to bravely accept/endure a painful or difficult situation. Origin: In early surgery without anesthesia, patients were given a bullet to bite during painful operations. Example: “Just bite the bullet and go to the dentist.”
Q.27. Choose the correct sentence (subject-verb agreement):
Answer: (2) The committee has reached its decision.
In American English (and for exams), collective nouns like committee, jury, team, class take a singular verb and singular pronoun “its” when acting as one unit. So: “The committee has reached its decision.” In British English, plural form is acceptable but not in Indian competitive exams.
In American English (and for exams), collective nouns like committee, jury, team, class take a singular verb and singular pronoun “its” when acting as one unit. So: “The committee has reached its decision.” In British English, plural form is acceptable but not in Indian competitive exams.
Q.28. Convert to active voice: “The letter was written by him.”
Answer: (3) He wrote the letter.
Passive: “The letter was written by him” → Tense: Simple Past Passive. Active Voice rule for Simple Past: Subject + V2 + Object. So: “He wrote the letter.” Rule: “was/were + V3” (passive) converts to Subject + V2 (active, simple past).
Passive: “The letter was written by him” → Tense: Simple Past Passive. Active Voice rule for Simple Past: Subject + V2 + Object. So: “He wrote the letter.” Rule: “was/were + V3” (passive) converts to Subject + V2 (active, simple past).
Q.29. Choose the word most similar in meaning to ‘LUCID’:
Answer: (2) Clear
Lucid means expressed clearly and easily understood, or mentally clear. Synonyms: Clear, Transparent, Comprehensible, Intelligible. Antonyms: Obscure, Vague, Unclear. Example: “The teacher gave a lucid explanation of the topic.” Same root: “Elucidate” means to make something clear.
Lucid means expressed clearly and easily understood, or mentally clear. Synonyms: Clear, Transparent, Comprehensible, Intelligible. Antonyms: Obscure, Vague, Unclear. Example: “The teacher gave a lucid explanation of the topic.” Same root: “Elucidate” means to make something clear.
Q.30. Which underlined part has an error?
“Neither of the two boys(A) / have submitted(B) / their project(C) / on time.(D)”
“Neither of the two boys(A) / have submitted(B) / their project(C) / on time.(D)”
Answer: (2) B — “have submitted” should be “has submitted”
Neither (used alone or with “of”) takes a singular verb. Correct sentence: “Neither of the two boys has submitted his project on time.” Rule: Neither/Either/Each/Everyone/Anyone + singular verb. “Their” should also be “his” but the main error tested here is (B) — verb agreement.
Neither (used alone or with “of”) takes a singular verb. Correct sentence: “Neither of the two boys has submitted his project on time.” Rule: Neither/Either/Each/Everyone/Anyone + singular verb. “Their” should also be “his” but the main error tested here is (B) — verb agreement.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31 – Q.40)
Q.31. Find the odd one out: Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Sparrow
Answer: (3) Sparrow
Tiger, Lion, and Leopard are all wild cats (felines/mammals). Sparrow is a bird — it does not belong to the cat family. This is a “Classification” type question where three share a common category and one does not.
Tiger, Lion, and Leopard are all wild cats (felines/mammals). Sparrow is a bird — it does not belong to the cat family. This is a “Classification” type question where three share a common category and one does not.
Q.32. Complete the number series: 5, 10, 20, 40, ___
Answer: (3) 80
Pattern: Each number is multiplied by 2. 5×2=10, 10×2=20, 20×2=40, 40×2=80. This is a Geometric Progression (GP) with common ratio r = 2.
Pattern: Each number is multiplied by 2. 5×2=10, 10×2=20, 20×2=40, 40×2=80. This is a Geometric Progression (GP) with common ratio r = 2.
Q.33. If CAT = 3-1-20, then DOG = ?
Answer: (1) 4-15-7
Letters are coded as their alphabetical position: C=3, A=1, T=20 ✓. So: D=4, O=15, G=7 → DOG = 4-15-7. Remember: A=1, B=2, C=3… G=7… O=15… T=20… Z=26.
Letters are coded as their alphabetical position: C=3, A=1, T=20 ✓. So: D=4, O=15, G=7 → DOG = 4-15-7. Remember: A=1, B=2, C=3… G=7… O=15… T=20… Z=26.
Q.34. Complete the letter series: B, D, G, K, ___
Answer: (3) P
B(2) → D(4): +2, D(4) → G(7): +3, G(7) → K(11): +4, K(11) → ?(11+5=16): +5 → P(16). Pattern: The gap increases by 1 each time (+2, +3, +4, +5…).
B(2) → D(4): +2, D(4) → G(7): +3, G(7) → K(11): +4, K(11) → ?(11+5=16): +5 → P(16). Pattern: The gap increases by 1 each time (+2, +3, +4, +5…).
Q.35. All roses are flowers. Some flowers fade quickly. Therefore:
Answer: (2) Some roses may fade quickly
Syllogism logic: Premise 1 — All roses are flowers. Premise 2 — Some flowers fade. We can only conclude that some roses may fade (since roses are a subset of flowers, and some flowers fade). We CANNOT say ALL roses fade — that would require all flowers to fade. This is a “possible conclusion” type.
Syllogism logic: Premise 1 — All roses are flowers. Premise 2 — Some flowers fade. We can only conclude that some roses may fade (since roses are a subset of flowers, and some flowers fade). We CANNOT say ALL roses fade — that would require all flowers to fade. This is a “possible conclusion” type.
Q.36. If A is the brother of B, and B is the sister of C, then what is A’s relation to C?
Answer: (2) Brother
A is the brother of B → A is male. B is the sister of C → B, A, and C are siblings. Since A is male and a sibling of C, A is the brother of C. Family tree: A (male) — B (female) — C (gender unknown) are all siblings.
A is the brother of B → A is male. B is the sister of C → B, A, and C are siblings. Since A is male and a sibling of C, A is the brother of C. Family tree: A (male) — B (female) — C (gender unknown) are all siblings.
Q.37. Arrange in logical order: 1.Graduation 2.Primary School 3.Job 4.Secondary School 5.Post-graduation
Answer: (1) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
Logical education sequence: Primary School (2) → Secondary School (4) → Graduation (1) → Post-graduation (5) → Job (3). This follows the natural order of academic progression before employment.
Logical education sequence: Primary School (2) → Secondary School (4) → Graduation (1) → Post-graduation (5) → Job (3). This follows the natural order of academic progression before employment.
Q.38. In a row, Ravi is 7th from the left and 13th from the right. How many people are in the row?
Answer: (2) 19
Formula: Total = Position from left + Position from right − 1 = 7 + 13 − 1 = 19. This formula is standard for all “position in a row/column” problems in competitive exams.
Formula: Total = Position from left + Position from right − 1 = 7 + 13 − 1 = 19. This formula is standard for all “position in a row/column” problems in competitive exams.
Q.39. Book is to Library as Painting is to:
Answer: (3) Gallery
Analogy: A Book is kept/displayed in a Library. Similarly, a Painting is displayed in a Gallery (Art Gallery). The relationship is “object → place where it is stored/displayed.” Artist creates paintings; Canvas is the material; Frame holds it — but Gallery is the place.
Analogy: A Book is kept/displayed in a Library. Similarly, a Painting is displayed in a Gallery (Art Gallery). The relationship is “object → place where it is stored/displayed.” Artist creates paintings; Canvas is the material; Frame holds it — but Gallery is the place.
Q.40. If 8 × 4 = 24 and 6 × 3 = 15, then 10 × 5 = ?
Answer: (2) 45
Pattern: 8×4 = 32 but answer is 24 → 32−8 = 24 (subtract first number). 6×3 = 18 but answer is 15 → 18−3 = 15 (subtract second number). Hmm, let’s check: 8+4+12=24? No. Actually: (8×4)−8 = 24 ✓ and (6×3)−3 = 15 ✓. So: (10×5)−5 = 50−5 = 45 ✓
Pattern: 8×4 = 32 but answer is 24 → 32−8 = 24 (subtract first number). 6×3 = 18 but answer is 15 → 18−3 = 15 (subtract second number). Hmm, let’s check: 8+4+12=24? No. Actually: (8×4)−8 = 24 ✓ and (6×3)−3 = 15 ✓. So: (10×5)−5 = 50−5 = 45 ✓
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41 – Q.50)
Q.41. What is the LCM of 9, 12, and 18?
Answer: (2) 36
9 = 3², 12 = 2²×3, 18 = 2×3². LCM = 2²×3² = 4×9 = 36. Verification: 36÷9=4 ✓, 36÷12=3 ✓, 36÷18=2 ✓. LCM is the smallest number divisible by all given numbers.
9 = 3², 12 = 2²×3, 18 = 2×3². LCM = 2²×3² = 4×9 = 36. Verification: 36÷9=4 ✓, 36÷12=3 ✓, 36÷18=2 ✓. LCM is the smallest number divisible by all given numbers.
Q.42. Simplify: 18 ÷ 3 × 2 + 5 − 1
Answer: (2) 16
BODMAS rule — Division and Multiplication first (left to right), then Addition and Subtraction: 18÷3 = 6 → 6×2 = 12 → 12+5 = 17 → 17−1 = 16. BODMAS: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.
BODMAS rule — Division and Multiplication first (left to right), then Addition and Subtraction: 18÷3 = 6 → 6×2 = 12 → 12+5 = 17 → 17−1 = 16. BODMAS: Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction.
Q.43. A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. In how many days can they complete it working together?
Answer: (2) 7.2 days
A’s 1-day work = 1/12, B’s 1-day work = 1/18. Together = 1/12 + 1/18 = 3/36 + 2/36 = 5/36. Time = 36/5 = 7.2 days. Formula: Combined time = (A×B)/(A+B) = (12×18)/(12+18) = 216/30 = 7.2 days ✓
A’s 1-day work = 1/12, B’s 1-day work = 1/18. Together = 1/12 + 1/18 = 3/36 + 2/36 = 5/36. Time = 36/5 = 7.2 days. Formula: Combined time = (A×B)/(A+B) = (12×18)/(12+18) = 216/30 = 7.2 days ✓
Q.44. A train travels 240 km in 4 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
Answer: (3) 60 km/h
Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 240 ÷ 4 = 60 km/h. Basic formula: Speed = Distance/Time, Distance = Speed×Time, Time = Distance/Speed. These three formulas are the backbone of all speed-distance problems.
Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 240 ÷ 4 = 60 km/h. Basic formula: Speed = Distance/Time, Distance = Speed×Time, Time = Distance/Speed. These three formulas are the backbone of all speed-distance problems.
Q.45. A : B = 3 : 5 and B : C = 4 : 7. Find A : C.
Answer: (1) 12 : 35
A:B = 3:5, B:C = 4:7. Make B equal: Multiply A:B by 4 → A:B = 12:20. Multiply B:C by 5 → B:C = 20:35. Now A:B:C = 12:20:35. So A:C = 12:35. Method: A:C = (A/B)×(B/C) = (3/5)×(4/7) = 12/35.
A:B = 3:5, B:C = 4:7. Make B equal: Multiply A:B by 4 → A:B = 12:20. Multiply B:C by 5 → B:C = 20:35. Now A:B:C = 12:20:35. So A:C = 12:35. Method: A:C = (A/B)×(B/C) = (3/5)×(4/7) = 12/35.
Q.46. The average of 5 numbers is 30. If one number is removed, the average of remaining 4 numbers is 28. What was the removed number?
Answer: (2) 38
Sum of 5 numbers = 5×30 = 150. Sum of remaining 4 numbers = 4×28 = 112. Removed number = 150 − 112 = 38. This “average with removal” type is very commonly asked in WBSSC and Group-C exams.
Sum of 5 numbers = 5×30 = 150. Sum of remaining 4 numbers = 4×28 = 112. Removed number = 150 − 112 = 38. This “average with removal” type is very commonly asked in WBSSC and Group-C exams.
Q.47. What is 15% of 480?
Answer: (3) 72
15% of 480 = (15/100) × 480 = (15 × 480)/100 = 7200/100 = 72. Quick method: 10% of 480 = 48, 5% of 480 = 24. So 15% = 48+24 = 72 ✓
15% of 480 = (15/100) × 480 = (15 × 480)/100 = 7200/100 = 72. Quick method: 10% of 480 = 48, 5% of 480 = 24. So 15% = 48+24 = 72 ✓
Q.48. A shopkeeper buys goods for ₹800 and sells at ₹1000. What is the profit percentage?
Answer: (2) 25%
Profit = SP − CP = 1000 − 800 = ₹200. Profit% = (Profit/CP) × 100 = (200/800) × 100 = 25%. Important: Profit% is always calculated on Cost Price (CP), not Selling Price. SP=1000, CP=800, Profit=200, Profit%=25%.
Profit = SP − CP = 1000 − 800 = ₹200. Profit% = (Profit/CP) × 100 = (200/800) × 100 = 25%. Important: Profit% is always calculated on Cost Price (CP), not Selling Price. SP=1000, CP=800, Profit=200, Profit%=25%.
Q.49. Find the Simple Interest on ₹5000 at 8% per annum for 3 years.
Answer: (3) ₹1200
Formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100 = (5000 × 8 × 3) / 100 = 120000/100 = ₹1200. Where P = Principal (₹5000), R = Rate (8%), T = Time (3 years). Total amount = P + SI = 5000 + 1200 = ₹6200.
Formula: SI = (P × R × T) / 100 = (5000 × 8 × 3) / 100 = 120000/100 = ₹1200. Where P = Principal (₹5000), R = Rate (8%), T = Time (3 years). Total amount = P + SI = 5000 + 1200 = ₹6200.
Q.50. Find the HCF of 56 and 84.
Answer: (3) 28
56 = 2³ × 7, 84 = 2² × 3 × 7. HCF = 2² × 7 = 4 × 7 = 28. Verification: 56÷28=2 ✓, 84÷28=3 ✓. HCF (Highest Common Factor) is the largest number that divides all given numbers exactly.
56 = 2³ × 7, 84 = 2² × 3 × 7. HCF = 2² × 7 = 4 × 7 = 28. Verification: 56÷28=2 ✓, 84÷28=3 ✓. HCF (Highest Common Factor) is the largest number that divides all given numbers exactly.