SET 6 — WBSSC Group C General Awareness (Detailed Version)
Topic Distribution: Indian History (1–10) | Indian Geography (11–20) | Constitution (21–28) | NEP & WB School Education (29–36) | Gender Awareness (37–40) | Culture/Computers/Environment (41–48) | Current Affairs/Sports/Science (49–50)
1. Which Mughal emperor granted the British East India Company Diwani rights over Bengal (1765)?
a) Bahadur Shah Zafar
b) Shah Alam II
c) Aurangzeb
d) Akbar
Answer: b) Shah Alam II
Detailed Explanation: After Battle of Buxar (1764), Treaty of Allahabad (1765) saw defeated Mughal emperor Shah Alam II grant Diwani (revenue collection rights) over Bengal, Bihar, Orissa to British East India Company. Robert Clive represented EIC. This economic control without political responsibility marked beginning of British colonial exploitation. Annual tribute ₹26 lakh continued to Mughals. Permanent Settlement (1793) later formalized land revenue system.
2. The first Indian War of Independence (1857) began with which incident at Meerut?
a) Mangal Pandey Barrackpore
b) Enfield rifle cartridges
c) Chapati distribution
d) Bhangi plates greased
Answer: b) Enfield rifle cartridges
Detailed Explanation: 10 May 1857, 85th Native Infantry refused to use new Enfield P-53 rifle cartridges rumored greased with cow/pig fat (offensive to Hindus/Muslims). Sepoys marched to Delhi, proclaimed Bahadur Shah Zafar emperor. Immediate trigger after Mangal Pandey’s earlier Barrackpore mutiny (March 1857). Rapid spread: Kanpur (Nana Saheb), Lucknow (Begum Hazrat Mahal), Jhansi (Rani Lakshmibai).
3. Who founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 for monotheistic reform?
a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c) Dayanand Saraswati
d) Swami Vivekananda
Answer: a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Detailed Explanation: Raja Ram Mohan Roy established Brahmo Sabha (later Samaj) opposing idol worship, caste rigidity, sati practice. Published “Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin” (Gift to Monotheists). Sati Regulation (1829) victory. Translated Upanishads to Bengali, Persian, English, Hindi. Known as “Father of Indian Renaissance,” maker of modern India.
4. The Ilbert Bill controversy (1883) challenged which racial discrimination?
a) Indians as judges over Europeans
b) Separate electorates
c) Arms Act
d) Vernacular Press Act
Answer: a) Indians as judges over Europeans
Detailed Explanation: Viceroy Lord Ripon proposed Indians (Indian Civil Service) could try Europeans in rural areas (previously jurisdiction limited). White backlash led withdrawal. Marked growing racial arrogance, demand for Indianization of services. INC formation (1885) partly response.
5. Which session of INC demanded Swaraj for first time (1906)?
a) Calcutta (Surat Split)
b) Benares (Lal-Bal-Pal)
c) Madras (1903)
d) Bombay (Gokhale)
Answer: a) Calcutta (Surat Split)
Detailed Explanation: Calcutta Congress 1906 under Naoroji adopted Swadeshi, Swaraj, Boycott resolutions. Extremists (Tilak, Bipin Pal) demanded Self Rule. Surat 1907 split Moderates vs Extremists over presidentship (Rash Behari Ghosh vs Tilak).
6. The Home Rule League movement was launched in:
a) 1915 by Tilak (Maharashtra), Besant (Madras)
b) 1916 Lucknow Pact
c) 1919 Non-Cooperation
d) 1920 KHILAFAT
Answer: a) 1915 by Tilak (Maharashtra), Besant (Madras)
Detailed Explanation: Tilak from Mumbai (April 1916), Annie Besant from Madras (Sept 1916). Peak membership 32,000. Demanded self-government within Empire. Besant arrested 1917, released mass protests. Merged into INC 1918.
7. Who defended Bhagat Singh in Lahore Conspiracy Case Assembly Bomb?
a) Asaf Ali
b) Bhulabhai Desai
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: a) Asaf Ali
Detailed Explanation: 8 April 1929, Bhagat Singh, Batukeshwar Dutt threw non-lethal bombs in Central Legislative Assembly protesting Public Safety Bill, Trade Disputes Bill. “Inquilab Zindabad” slogan. Hunger strike Lahore jail. Executed 23 March 1931.
8. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed before which event?
a) Dandi March
b) Second Round Table
c) Poona Pact
d) Communal Award
Answer: b) Second Round Table
Detailed Explanation: 5 March 1931. British Viceroy Lord Irwin released 90,000 prisoners, allowed salt making coastal areas, banned Congressmen participated RTC-II London. Gandhi represented INC alone.
9. Which European power established first factory at Masulipatnam (1611)?
a) Portuguese
b) Dutch
c) English
d) French
Answer: b) Dutch
Detailed Explanation: Dutch East India Company (VOC) Masulipatnam factory for textiles, spices. Portuguese earlier Goa (1510), English Surat 1612, French Pondicherry 1674. Dutch Coromandel Coast dominance.
10. The Vernacular Press Act (1878) was enacted by:
a) Lord Lytton
b) Lord Ripon
c) Lord Curzon
d) Lord Dufferin
Answer: a) Lord Lytton
Detailed Explanation: Viceroy Lytton suppressed Indian language press criticizing Afghan policy, famine (1876-78). Native press confessed “loyalty,” English exempt. Repealed 1882 Ripon.
11. India’s largest delta is formed by:
a) Ganga-Brahmaputra
b) Godavari-Krishna
c) Mahanadi
d) Cauvery
Answer: a) Ganga-Brahmaputra
Detailed Explanation: Sundarbans world’s largest delta (10,000 sq km India portion). Ganga (Padma) + Brahmaputra (Jamuna) + Meghna. Salinity gradient 0.5-30 ppt. UNESCO site, Royal Bengal Tiger habitat.
12. Which pass connects Spiti Valley to Lahaul Valley?
a) Rohtang Pass
b) Kunzum Pass
c) Shipki La
d) Parang La
Answer: b) Kunzum Pass
Detailed Explanation: 4,590m elevation, Himachal Pradesh. Key Buddhist pilgrimage route to Kibber, Chandratal Lake. Open June-October. Strategic Manali-Leh highway link.
13. The Deccan Traps geological formation spans across:
a) Maharashtra, Gujarat, MP
b) Karnataka, AP, Telangana
c) Maharashtra only
d) Rajasthan
Answer: a) Maharashtra, Gujarat, MP
Detailed Explanation: 500,000 sq km basalt lava flows, 66 million years ago. Thickness 2km. Dinosaur extinction theory link. Lonar crater (meteorite) within.
14. Which river flows through “Grand Canyon of India”?
a) Narmada (Marble Rocks)
b) Chambal (Gandhi Sagar)
c) Betwa (Raneh Falls)
d) Son (Roopkund)
Answer: a) Narmada (Marble Rocks)
Detailed Explanation: Bhedaghat, Jabalpur. 30m high white marble cliffs either side. Dhuandhar Falls. Boating between rocks.
15. India’s northernmost glacier is:
a) Siachen Glacier
b) Gangotri Glacier
c) Amarnath
d) Zemu Glacier
Answer: a) Siachen Glacier
Detailed Explanation: 76 km long, 700 sq km Karakoram Range. Siachen Conflict 1984-present. Highest battlefield (6,100m). 35 Indian posts.
16. Which state has maximum forest cover % (2023 ISFR)?
a) Mizoram (85.3%)
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Nagaland
d) Meghalaya
Answer: a) Mizoram (85.3%)
Detailed Explanation: India State Forest Report 2023: Very Dense Forest 2.37%, Moderately Dense 9.19%, Open Forest 7.37%. Total forest cover 21.76% (715,000 sq km).
17. The Palk Strait separates India from:
a) Sri Lanka
b) Maldives
c) Myanmar
d) Bangladesh
Answer: a) Sri Lanka
Detailed Explanation: 64km wide, shallow (1-4m Gulf Mannar side). Adam’s Bridge (Ram Setu) limestone shoals. Sethusamudram project dredging controversy.
18. Which plateau region produces maximum coffee?
a) Coorg (Karnataka)
b) Nilgiris (TN)
c) Wayanad (Kerala)
d) All equal
Answer: a) Coorg (Karnataka)
Detailed Explanation: India 3rd largest producer (3.5 lakh tonnes). Karnataka 70%, Kerala 23%, TN 7%. Arabica highlands, Robusta lowlands.
19. The Longitudinal profile of which river shows maximum meandering?
a) Brahmaputra Assam
b) Ganga Bihar
c) Kosi Bihar
d) Godavari AP
Answer: c) Kosi Bihar
Detailed Explanation: “Sorrow of Bihar” changes course 100+ km every decade. Seven mouths Himalayan fan. Embankments breached 9 times 1980-2008.
20. India’s first biosphere reserve:
a) Nilgiri (1986)
b) Nanda Devi
c) Nokrek
d) Great Nicobar
Answer: a) Nilgiri (1986)
Detailed Explanation: Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka. UNESCO 2000. Lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri tahr, 3,400 plant species.
21. Article 112 of Constitution relates to:
a) Annual Financial Statement (Budget)
b) Money Bill
c) Appropriation Bill
d) Finance Commission
Answer: a) Annual Financial Statement (Budget)
Detailed Explanation: Presented 1 Feb (Interim 16 Feb election year). 3 parts: Consolidated Fund (revenue, capital), Contingency Fund, Public Account. Demands for Grants voting.
22. The 74th Amendment (1992) created:
a) Municipalities (Nagar Panchayats, Councils, Corporations)
b) Panchayati Raj
c) Cooperative Societies
d) Urban Property
Answer: a) Municipalities (Nagar Panchayats, Councils, Corporations)
Detailed Explanation: Part IXA, 12th Schedule (18 functions). State Election Commission. Wards Committees >1 lakh population. Women’s reservation 33%.
23. Which Fundamental Right was described as “heart and soul” by Dr. Ambedkar?
a) Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
b) Article 21
c) Article 19
d) Article 14
Answer: a) Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)
Detailed Explanation: Writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto. Direct Supreme Court access. Suspended only Article 20, 21 during emergency.
24. The Anti-Defection Law is in:
a) 10th Schedule
b) 9th Schedule
c) 52nd Amendment
d) Both a & c
Answer: d) Both a & c
Detailed Explanation: 1985 52nd Amendment. Disqualification: voluntary giving up party, voting against party whip (except speaker vote). Exceptions: merger 2/3 members.
25. President rule imposed under:
a) Article 356
b) Governor recommendation
c) Parliament approval
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: 6 months extendable 3 years. S.R. Bommai case (1994): floor test, no mala fide, judicial review. 132 times imposed 1951-2024.
26. Goods & Services Tax Council under:
a) Article 279A
b) 101st Amendment
c) Both
d) Finance Commission
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Centre 1/3 vote, States 2/3. Decisions 3/4 majority. Rates: 0%,5%,12%,18%,28%. IGST interstate.
27. The 42nd Amendment (1976) is known as:
a) Mini-Constitution
b) During Emergency
c) Added Socialism, Secularism, Integrity
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: Preamble changes, Fundamental Duties (Article 51A), extended Parliament term 5→6 years (reversed 44th), Directive Principles supremacy.
28. Which Article provides for Administrative Tribunals?
a) Article 323A
b) Article 323B
c) Both
d) CAT Act 1985
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: 323A: Central/State Administrative Tribunals. 323B: tribunals other matters (tax, labour). CAT Delhi, 19 Benches.
29. NEP 2020 proposes medium of instruction as mother tongue up to:
a) Grade 5, preferably Grade 8
b) Grade 3
c) Grade 10
d) No preference
Answer: a) Grade 5, preferably Grade 8
Detailed Explanation: Three language formula, no language imposition. Foundational stage multilingualism. Regional languages Class 12 boards.
30. National Education Policy introduces:
a) 5+3+3+3+4 curricular structure
b) 6% GDP expenditure
c) Both
d) 10+2 only
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Foundational (3-8): play, activity. Preparatory (8-11), Middle (11-14), Secondary (14-18). Multidisciplinary, no hard stream separation.
31. West Bengal Madhyamik exam conducted by:
a) WBBSE
b) WBCHSE
c) CBSE Regional
d) ICSE Council
Answer: a) WBBSE
Detailed Explanation: West Bengal Board Secondary Education, Class 10 board exam Feb-March. First language Bengali/English, second English/Bengali/Nepali, third Hindi/other.
32. WB HS (Class 12) vocational subjects include:
a) Health Care, IT, Tourism, Retail
b) Only Engineering
c) Arts only
d) No vocational
Answer: a) Health Care, IT, Tourism, Retail
Detailed Explanation: WBCHSE 50+ vocational courses. 30% curriculum practical training, internships.
33. PARAKH under NEP 2020 stands for:
a) Performance Assessment Review Analysis Knowledge Holistic
b) National Assessment Centre
c) Both
d) Board regulator
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Under NCERT. Competency-based assessment standards. Board exam reform: semester system, improvement chances.
34. NIPUN Bharat mission targets:
a) Foundational Literacy Numeracy by 2026-27
b) Grade 3 level
c) Ages 3-9 years
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: National Initiative Proficiency Reading Understanding Numeracy. Anganwadi-Grade 2 focus. Vidya Samiksha Kendra monitoring.
35. West Bengal Sabooj Sathi scheme:
a) Free bicycles Class 9-12
b) Girls only
c) SC/ST only
d) Class 9-10 govt school
Answer: d) Class 9-10 govt school
Detailed Explanation: 2015 scheme, 1.2 crore bicycles distributed. Reduces dropout, especially rural girls. ₹8,000/bicycle.
36. Kanyashree Prakalpa components:
a) K1 annual ₹1000 (13-18 yrs), K2 ₹25,000 (18+), K3 ₹10,000 UG
b) Marriage grant only
c) Cycle only
d) SC girls only
Answer: a) K1 annual ₹1000 (13-18 yrs), K2 ₹25,000 (18+), K3 ₹10,000 UG
Detailed Explanation: Conditional cash transfer, unmarried school/college. UNESCO World Public Service Award 2017.
37. POSH Act 2013 mandates in educational institutions:
a) Internal Complaints Committee
b) 50% women members
c) NGO member
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: >10 employees organizations. Senior woman Presiding Officer. Inquiry 90 days. Vishaka guidelines origin.
38. POCSO Act 2012 minimum punishment penetrative assault:
a) 10 years RI
b) 20 years RI/life
c) Death penalty
d) b & c cases
Answer: d) b & c cases
Detailed Explanation: Section 4: 10 years minimum. Section 6 aggravated: 20 years/life. Death if persistent vegetative/death.
39. Domestic Violence Act 2005 protection officers:
a) State appointed
b) Medical, legal, shelter support
c) Both
d) Police only
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Civil law, cognizable offence. Right to reside matrimonial home. Breach protection order = criminal.
40. Rupashree marriage assistance WB:
a) ₹25,000 girl 18+ marriage
b) Discourages child marriage
c) Income <2.5 lakh
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: 2018 scheme. Bride Aadhaar, groom affidavit. 12 lakh beneficiaries.
41. Kalighat Patachitra painting:
a) Kolkata temple art
b) 19th century
c) Social satire, mythology
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: Scroll paintings, natural colors. British depicted, social evils. Paper/cloth medium.
42. Basic computer: Full form of CPU?
a) Central Processing Unit
b) Control Processing Unit
c) Central Program Unit
d) Computer Processing Unit
Answer: a) Central Processing Unit
Detailed Explanation: Brain of computer. ALU (Arithmetic Logic), CU (Control Unit), Registers. Fetches, decodes, executes instructions.
43. Ozone layer depletion primarily by:
a) CFCs (ChloroFluoroCarbons)
b) CO2
c) Methane
d) NOx
Answer: a) CFCs (ChloroFluoroCarbons)
Detailed Explanation: Montreal Protocol 1987 phased out. Refrigerator ACs, aerosols. Kigali Amendment HFCs. Recovery projected 2060.
44. Chipko Movement 1974 leader:
a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
b) Gaura Devi Reni village
c) Both
d) Medha Patkar
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Uttarakhand women hugged trees against commercial logging. “What goes around Himalayas comes around Gangetic plains.”
45. Ramsar wetland convention 1971 India sites:
a) 75 (2023)
b) Chilika, Sundarbans, Keoladeo
c) Carbon sink, flood control
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: 10th globally. Sundarbans largest halophytic mangrove.
46. National Action Plan Climate Change 8 missions:
a) Solar, Energy Efficiency, Sustainable Habitat
b) Water, Himalayan Ecosystem
c) Green India, Agriculture
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: NAPCC 2008. National Solar Mission 100 GW achieved 2023 (72 GW).
47. Current repo rate RBI Feb 2026:
a) 6.50% unchanged
b) 6.25% cut
c) 6.75% hike
d) 4% target
Answer: a) 6.50% unchanged
Detailed Explanation: MPC 6 members, inflation targeting 4±2%. Food inflation pressures.
48. Paris Olympics 2024 India medals:
a) 6 (1 Silver, 5 Bronze)
b) Neeraj Chopra Silver
c) Manu Bhaker 2 Bronze
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: Historic shooting medals. Hockey Bronze 3rd consecutive Olympics.
49. CRISPR-Cas9 Nobel Prize:
a) 2020 Doudna & Charpentier
b) Gene editing
c) Both
d) 2012 discovery
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Bacterial immune system adapted. First sickle cell cure FDA approved.
50. Gaganyaan mission target:
a) 2026 3 astronauts
b) Low Earth Orbit 400 km
c) 3-7 days mission
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: G1 unmanned TV-D1 success Oct 2023. Crew: Prasanth Balakrishnan Nair et al.