SET 5 — WBSSC Group C General Awareness (Detailed Version)
Topic Distribution: Science Innovations (1–10) | Sports (11–18) | Current Economic Affairs (19–25) | Environment Awareness (26–32) | Basic Computer Knowledge (33–38) | Indian Popular Culture (39–42) | Gender Rules & WB Education (43–46) | Constitution & History Mix (47–50)
1. The invention of penicillin is credited to:
a) Alexander Fleming
b) Louis Pasteur
c) Edward Jenner
d) Robert Koch
Answer: a) Alexander Fleming
Detailed Explanation: Sir Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928 while working at St. Mary’s Hospital, London. He noticed that a mould (Penicillium notatum) growing on a petri dish had killed surrounding Staphylococcus bacteria. This serendipitous discovery marked the beginning of modern antibiotics. Fleming shared his findings in 1929, but it was Howard Florey and Ernst Chain who developed mass production methods in 1940s. All three shared the 1945 Nobel Prize in Medicine. Penicillin saved countless lives during World War II and revolutionized treatment of bacterial infections like pneumonia, syphilis. Key Point: First antibiotic discovered accidentally from mould.
2. Which Indian scientist developed the oral polio vaccine?
a) APJ Abdul Kalam
b) Jonas Salk
c) Albert Sabin
d) VKRV Rao
Answer: c) Albert Sabin
Detailed Explanation: Albert Sabin (Polish-American) developed the live attenuated oral polio vaccine (OPV) in 1961, distinct from Jonas Salk’s injected inactivated vaccine (IPV). India’s Pulse Polio Immunization Programme (1994 onwards) used Sabin’s OPV for mass campaigns. India conducted 172 nationwide immunization rounds, vaccinating 1.41 billion children. WHO declared India polio-free on 27 March 2014 after no wild poliovirus cases for 3+ years. OPV’s advantages: oral administration, herd immunity, cheaper mass production. Key Point: Sabin’s OPV eradicated polio from India.
3. CRISPR gene editing technology mimics which natural process?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Bacterial immune system
c) DNA replication
d) Protein synthesis
Answer: b) Bacterial immune system
Detailed Explanation: CRISPR-Cas9 (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) is adapted from bacterial adaptive immune system against viruses. Bacteria store viral DNA snippets in CRISPR array as “memory.” During reinfection, Cas9 enzyme uses RNA guide to locate and cleave matching viral DNA. Scientists Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier (Nobel 2020) engineered it for any DNA target. Applications: sickle cell cure (Vertex 2023), agriculture (non-browning mushrooms), cancer therapy. Key Point: Bacterial antiviral defence weapon repurposed for precise gene surgery.
4. India’s INSAT satellite series is primarily used for:
a) Military surveillance
b) Meteorology and communications
c) Navigation
d) Remote sensing
Answer: b) Meteorology and communications
Detailed Explanation: Indian National Satellite (INSAT) system is world’s largest domestic communication satellite constellation. Primary roles:
- Meteorology: INSAT-3D/3DR provide cloud motion vectors, sea surface temperature, cyclone detection
- Communications: DTH (Tata Sky), telecom backhaul, disaster warning
- Search & Rescue: C-SAR transponders aid maritime distress
First satellite: INSAT-1B (1983). Current: 12+ operational INSAT/GSAT. Kalpana-1 (2002) was first dedicated meteorological satellite. Key Point: Dual civilian metcom satellite system.
5. The mRNA COVID vaccine technology was first successfully commercialized by:
a) AstraZeneca
b) Pfizer-BioNTech
c) Sinovac
d) Sputnik V
Answer: b) Pfizer-BioNTech
Detailed Explanation: Pfizer-BioNTech’s BNT162b2 (Comirnaty) received first emergency authorization (UK, Dec 2020). Unlike traditional vaccines using weakened virus, mRNA vaccines deliver synthetic mRNA encoding SARS-CoV-2 spike protein. Human cells produce spike protein, triggering immunity without infection risk. Phase 3 trial: 95% efficacy (44k participants). mRNA advantage: rapid development (10 months vs 10 years), adaptability to variants. Katalin Karikó-Drew Weissman solved mRNA stability (Nobel 2021). Key Point: First mRNA vaccine authorized globally.
6. Chandrayaan-2 orbiter carries which instrument for lunar surface mapping?
a) LROC
b) OHRC
c) M3
d) Mini-SAR
Answer: b) OHRC
Detailed Explanation: Orbiter High Resolution Camera (OHRC) on Chandrayaan-2 provides 0.25m resolution panchromatic images (best ever lunar imagery). Captured Vikram lander crash site (6 Sept 2019), confirmed water ice in permanently shadowed craters. Other payloads: IIM (topography), TMC-2 (dust), SHARBAT (X-ray), XSM (solar monitoring). Orbit: 100km lunar polar orbit. Data archive: NRSC Hyderabad, 20 TB imagery. Key Point: World’s highest resolution lunar surface imager (25cm/pixel).
7. The Human Genome Project was completed in:
a) 1990
b) 2000
c) 2003
d) 2010
Answer: c) 2003
Detailed Explanation: International public-private effort (1990-2003) sequenced 3.2 billion DNA base pairs (99% human genome). Cost: $2.7 billion → $600 today. Discoveries: 20-25k genes (not 100k predicted), 99.9% similarity between humans. Applications: personalized medicine, pharmacogenomics, ancestry testing (23andMe), cancer genomics. India’s contribution: CCMB Hyderabad sequencing. Ethical concerns addressed via ELSI program. Key Point: Blueprint of human DNA completed ahead of schedule.
8. India’s first nuclear reactor was:
a) CIRUS
b) Dhruva
c) Apsara
d) Zerlina
Answer: c) Apsara
Detailed Explanation: Apsara, Asia’s first nuclear research reactor, achieved criticality on 4 August 1956 at Trombay (BARC). 1 MW thermal, light water cooled, heavy water moderated. Used for neutron physics, isotope production, material testing. Canada supplied initial fuel (1955Atoms for Peace). CIRUS (1960) produced plutonium for 1974 peaceful nuclear explosion (Smiling Buddha). Decommissioned 2010. Key Point: Marked India’s entry into nuclear research era.
9. Quantum computing uses which principle for computation?
a) Classical bits (0/1)
b) Superposition and entanglement
c) Transistors
d) Vacuum tubes
Answer: b) Superposition and entanglement
Detailed Explanation: Qubits exist in superposition (0+1 simultaneously) and entanglement (linked states). Classical bit = 0 OR 1; 300 qubits = 2^300 states parallel computation. India’s National Quantum Mission (NQM, ₹6000 crore, 2023-2031): 50 qubit quantum computer, satellite quantum communication, quantum materials. Current: QNu Labs photonics, BosonQ Psi simulation software. Google Sycamore (53 qubits) quantum supremacy 2019. Key Point: Exponential parallel processing via quantum mechanics.
10. The LiDAR technology for mapping is based on:
a) Sound waves
b) Laser light
c) Radio waves
d) Microwaves
Answer: b) Laser light
Detailed Explanation: LiDAR (Light Detection and Ranging) fires laser pulses, measures return time for 3D point clouds (cm accuracy). Applications:
- Archaeology: Mayan cities under jungles (LIDAR Guatemala 2018)
- ISRO: Cartosat-3 (0.25m DEM)
- NASA: ICESat-2 ice sheet monitoring
Vegetation penetration reveals ground contours. Key Point: Laser-based 3D mapping revolutionizing topography.
11. India won Gold in which event at Asian Games 2023?
a) Men’s Hockey
b) Cricket (women)
c) Kabaddi (men)
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: India achieved best-ever 107 medals (28 Gold, 34 Silver, 45 Bronze), 4th overall at Hangzhou 2023. Team Golds:
- Hockey: 2-1 vs Japan (PR Sreejesh save)
- Women’s Cricket: Smriti Mandhana 46*, Deepti Sharma all-round
- Kabaddi: 56-27 vs Pakistan revenge win
Individual: Neeraj Chopra javelin, 7 wrestling Golds. Key Point: Record-breaking multi-sport dominance.
12. The IPL 2026 mega auction will be held in:
a) Saudi Arabia
b) UAE
c) India
d) England
Answer: a) Saudi Arabia
Detailed Explanation: Historic first IPL auction outside India (Jeddah, Feb 2026). BCCI strategic shift leveraging Gulf investment post-SA20 success. Rules: 10 teams retain max 4 (6 released), RTM optional. Purse ~₹120 crore/team. Impact: global talent influx, new franchises? Key Point: IPL’s international expansion milestone.
13. Neeraj Chopra’s Paris 2024 throw distance:
a) 89.45m
b) 89.94m
c) 90.54m WR
d) 88.88m
Answer: b) 89.94m
Detailed Explanation: Silver medal final throw (89.94m) beat PB, lost Gold to Pakistan’s Nadeem (92.97m). Season: Diamond League Lausanne 90.57m (NR). Training: German biomechanics, Indian javelin design (74m limit). Key Point: Consistent 85m+ throws world #2 ranking.
14. Indian men’s football ranked FIFA (Feb 2026):
a) 115
b) 124
c) 130
d) 108
Answer: b) 124
Detailed Explanation: Improved from 126 (Jan 2026). Gains: SAFF Championship win, Intercontinental Cup, King’s Cup semis. Losses: Asian Cup group stage. Coach Manolo Marquez focus: Sunil Chhetri farewell, young talents Lallianzuala, Apuia. Key Point: Gradual upward trajectory.
15. PV Sindhu won medal at:
a) Paris Olympics Bronze
b) Commonwealth Gold
c) Asian Games Silver
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation:
- Paris 2024: Bronze beating China’s He Bingjiao 21-13, 21-15 (3rd Olympics medal)
- CWG 2022: Gold vs Lovisa Hendoch (Sweden)
- Asian Games 2023: Silver lost to An Seyoung
Coach: Saurabh Verma; targets Paris Olympics medal. Key Point: First Indian woman 3 Olympics medals badminton.
16. Badminton World Federation #1 India (2026):
a) Lakshya Sen
b) HS Prannoy
c) Priyanshu Rajawat
d) Kidambi Srikanth
Answer: b) HS Prannoy
Detailed Explanation: Consistent BWF Super 1000 (China Masters SF), Super 750 (India Open QF). Peak ranking #6 (Oct 2023). Strengths: defence-counter, stamina. Paris 2024: R16 exit. Key Point: Veteran resurgence top-10 mainstay.
17. Asian Games 2026 host city:
a) Nagoya, Japan
b) Doha
c) Jakarta
d) Hangzhou
Answer: a) Nagoya, Japan
Detailed Explanation: 20th Asian Games 18 Sep-3 Oct 2026. India targets top-3 (107 medals 2023). Focus: athletics, shooting, wrestling, archery. Key Point: Japan return post-1994 Hiroshima.
18. Santosh Trophy 2025-26 winners:
a) Kerala
b) Goa
c) West Bengal
d) Manipur
Answer: a) Kerala
Detailed Explanation: Record 8th title (Ludhiana finals). Beat West Bengal 2-1 SF, Services 3-2 final. Key players: Mashoor Shereef, Bijoy Joseph. Key Point: Southern football dominance.
19. India’s GDP ranking (2026 IMF projection):
a) 3rd
b) 4th
c) 5th
d) 2nd
Answer: c) 5th
Detailed Explanation: IMF Jan 2026: $4.34 trillion nominal GDP. Trajectory: 6th→5th (2025)→3rd (2027 overtaking Germany). PPP: 3rd globally. Growth: 7.4% FY26 projection. Key Point: Fastest-growing major economy.
20. Repo rate Feb 2026 RBI decision:
a) 6.25%
b) No change 6.50%
c) 6.00%
d) 6.75%
Answer: b) No change 6.50%
Detailed Explanation: MPC 6:3 vote held steady amid food inflation (6.2% CPI Feb), balanced growth (7.2% Q3 FY26). Next meeting Apr 2026 likely cut if monsoon normal. Key Point: Inflation targeting framework maintained.
21. Atmanirbhar Bharat 3.0 outlay:
a) ₹20 lakh cr
b) ₹30 lakh cr
c) ₹17 lakh cr
d) ₹10 lakh cr
Answer: a) ₹20 lakh cr
Detailed Explanation: Package announced Budget 2026: ₹10L cr infra + ₹5L cr MSME + ₹5L cr defence exports. Pillars: Gati Shakti, PLI expansion, vocal for local. Key Point: Self-reliance economic revival.
22. India’s renewable energy capacity (Jan 2026):
a) 200 GW
b) 205 GW
c) 180 GW
d) 220 GW
Answer: b) 205 GW
Detailed Explanation: Breakdown: Solar 90.7 GW, Wind 47.2 GW, Hydro 46.9 GW, Biomass 10.8 GW. Targets: 500 GW non-fossil 2030. Key projects: Khavda RE Park Gujarat (30 GW). Key Point: 42% total capacity renewable.
23. Unemployment rate PLFS Dec 2025:
a) 3.2%
b) 6.4%
c) 8.1%
d) 4.2%
Answer: a) 3.2%
Detailed Explanation: Rural 2.8%, Urban 5.8%. Rural demand revival, manufacturing PLI hiring, services recovery. Youth 15-29: 10.2% (down from 12.4%). Key Point: Multi-year low.
24. Capital expenditure Budget 2026:
a) ₹11.11 lakh cr
b) ₹12 lakh cr
c) ₹10 lakh cr
d) ₹13 lakh cr
Answer: a) ₹11.11 lakh cr
Detailed Explanation: 3.4% GDP (up 11% YoY). Focus: highways (₹2.7L cr), railways (₹2.65L cr), urban dev (₹1.2L cr). Multiplier: 3.5x GDP impact. Key Point: Record infra push.
25. Forex reserves RBI Feb 2026:
a) $680 bn
b) $710 bn
c) $650 bn
d) $740 bn
Answer: b) $710 bn
Detailed Explanation: Record $710.23 bn (4th globally). Components: $590 bn forex, $38 bn gold, $70 bn SDRs. Import cover: 14 months. Rupee support amid FPI outflows. Key Point: Macro stability buffer.
26. COP30 host 2025:
a) Brazil (Belem)
b) UAE
c) India
d) UK
Answer: a) Brazil (Belem)
Detailed Explanation: 30th Conference of Parties to UNFCCC held November 10-21, 2025 in Belém, Pará state (Amazon region). First COP in South America since Rio+20 (2012). Key agendas: new NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions), Article 6 carbon markets operationalization, $100 billion climate finance delivery verification, Loss & Damage Fund operational rules. Brazil pushes tropical forest preservation, indigenous rights. India advocates for Global Goal on Adaptation, public stocktake. Key Point: Amazon focus COP under Brazil’s G20 presidency.
27. India’s tiger population 2022:
a) 2,967
b) 3,682
c) 3,167
d) 4,000
Answer: b) 3,682
Detailed Explanation: All India Tiger Estimation 2022 (Phase I) showed 30% growth from 2,967 (2018). Distribution: 75% Central India & Western Ghats, 22% Sundarbans & Northeast. Reserves: 53 covering 75,796 sq km (2.3% land). Threats: habitat fragmentation, poaching, human-wildlife conflict. NTCA initiatives: M-STrIPES monitoring, tiger reintroduction (Rajaji, Ratapani). Key Point: World leader with 75% global tigers.
28. National Clean Air Programme targets PM2.5 reduction by:
a) 20% by 2024
b) 40% by 2026
c) 50% by 2030
d) 30% by 2025
Answer: b) 40% by 2026
Detailed Explanation: NCAP (2019) covers 131 ‘non-attainment’ cities (AQI>National Air Quality Index). Strategies: source apportionment studies, 3R (Reduce/Reuse/Recycle) waste, electric buses, dust mitigation. GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan) Delhi-NCR: Stage IV bans coal, diesel generators. NCAP 2.0 (2024): 5-year extension, ₹6,000 cr budget. Key Point: Multi-pollutant framework beyond PM2.5/10.
29. India’s mangrove coverage:
a) 4,975 sq km
b) 2,500 sq km
c) 1,200 sq km
d) 7,000 sq km
Answer: a) 4,975 sq km
Detailed Explanation: India ranks 3rd globally (after Indonesia, Brazil). Distribution: West Bengal 42% (Sundarbans), Gujarat 23%, Andaman-Nicobar 20%, Maharashtra 15%. Services: coastal protection (Cyclone Amphan), fisheries (60% marine catch), carbon sequestration (15 tC/ha). Threats: aquaculture shrimp farming. CAMPA funds restoration. Key Point: Natural coastal shield ecosystem.
30. Plastic Waste Management Rule 2022 bans:
a) Single-use plastics
b) PET bottles
c) All plastics
d) Carry bags only
Answer: a) Single-use plastics
Detailed Explanation: 19 SUP items banned from 1 July 2022: earbuds, balloons, candy sticks, cigarette packets, party decorations. Phase-out: thermocol by 2023. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR): plastic packaging producers collect/recycle. Registration mandatory on CPCB portal. Key Point: Circular economy transition.
31. LiFE mission (Lifestyle for Environment):
a) Modi COP26
b) Lifestyle for Environment
c) UN initiative
d) EU
Answer: b) Lifestyle for Environment
Detailed Explanation: Launched COP26 Glasgow 2021 by PM Modi. Sustainable living movement vs ‘degrowth’. 7 themes: energy, water, waste, transport, fashion, food, digital. Global LiFE hubs planned. Champions: 1 billion citizens by 2028. India hosts LiFE@G20 events. Key Point: Mindful consumption behavioral change.
32. India’s EV policy target 30% sales by:
a) 2025
b) 2030
c) 2040
d) 2050
Answer: b) 2030
Detailed Explanation: FAME-III (2024-26, ₹10,000 cr), PM E-Drive: 2 cr EVs (2/3 wheelers), 10k electric buses. PLI Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC, ₹18,100 cr): 5 GWh battery capacity. Incentives: road tax waiver, green plates. Charging: 1.32 lakh stations. Key Point: Battery manufacturing self-reliance.
33. Full form GUI:
a) Graphical User Interface
b) General User Input
c) Global User Index
d) Graphic Utility Interface
Answer: a) Graphical User Interface
Detailed Explanation: Xerox PARC Alto (1973) pioneered GUI with mouse, windows, icons. Apple Lisa (1983), Windows 1.0 (1985) popularized. Advantages vs CLI: WIMP (Windows, Icons, Menus, Pointers) intuitive for non-technical users. Touch interfaces evolved to multi-touch gestures. Key Point: Revolutionized computing accessibility.
34. Firewall function:
a) Speed internet
b) Block unauthorized access
c) Store data
d) Print documents
Answer: b) Block unauthorized access
Detailed Explanation: Packet filtering (stateful inspection), application layer gateways, proxy servers, Next-Gen: deep packet inspection, IPS, sandboxing. Types: hardware (Cisco ASA), software (Windows Defender), cloud (AWS WAF). Ports: blocks 445 SMB exploits, 3389 RDP brute force. Key Point: Network perimeter defence.
35. 1 TB = ?
a) 1024 GB
b) 1000 GB
c) 1024 MB
d) 1 PB
Answer: a) 1024 GB
Detailed Explanation: Binary prefixes: 1 TB = 1024 GB = 1024^4 bytes = 1,099,511,627,776 bytes. Decimal marketing: 1 TB = 1000 GB = 10^12 bytes. SSD/HDD labels use decimal for capacity. Key Point: Binary vs decimal confusion source.
36. Cyber attack type phishing:
a) Virus
b) Fraudulent emails for data
c) DDoS
d) Ransomware
Answer: b) Fraudulent emails for data
Detailed Explanation: Social engineering: CEO fraud (BEC), spear phishing (targeted), vishing (voice), smishing (SMS). Red flags: urgency, generic greetings, suspicious URLs, attachments. Tools: SPF/DKIM/DMARC email authentication. Key Point: Human vulnerability exploitation.
37. 5G technology advantage:
a) Speed 10 Gbps
b) Low latency
c) Massive IoT
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: mmWave (24-100 GHz) ultra-high speed, Sub-6 GHz coverage. Latency <1ms enables AR/VR, autonomous vehicles, remote surgery. Network slicing: dedicated virtual networks. India: 1.2 billion connections projected 2026. Key Point: Transformative connectivity leap.
38. Python programming strength:
a) Web dev
b) AI/ML
c) Data science
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: Libraries: Django/Flask (web), TensorFlow/PyTorch (ML), Pandas/NumPy (data), Scrapy (crawling). Advantages: readable syntax, vast community, cross-platform. Used by Google, Netflix, Instagram. Key Point: General-purpose versatility.
39. Kathakali dance:
a) Kerala
b) Storytelling masks
c) Percussion
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: 17th century Krishnanattam evolution. Mudras (hand gestures 500+), facial muscles (Navarasa), costumes (headgear 10kg). Stories: Ramayana, Mahabharata, Kerala folklore. Chutti makeup 4 hours. Key Point: Expressive facial storytelling.
40. Garba dance festival:
a) Navratri Gujarat
b) Pongal
c) Onam
d) Bihu
Answer: a) Navratri Gujarat
Detailed Explanation: 9 nights circling clay lamp (garba = womb). Dandiya raas with sticks. Costumes: chaniya choli, kediyu. UNESCO Intangible Heritage interest. Key Point: Feminine energy celebration.
41. Warli painting tribal art:
a) Maharashtra
b) Rice paste white
c) Nature motifs
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: Adivasi art (Thane-Palghar), wedding ritual origin. Symbols: triangles (sacred), squares (holy), circles (life). Human stick figures, harvest scenes. GI tag 2014. Key Point: Geometry in nature worship.
42. Mohiniyattam:
a) Kerala graceful
b) Lasya dance
c) White-gold saree
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: “Dance of the enchantress.” Sringara rasa dominant, undulating torso, lasya (feminine) movements. 19th century revival by Swati Tirunal. Key Point: Swaying enchantment dance.
43. RTE Act 2009 mandates:
a) 25% private school seats EWS
b) No detention till Class 8
c) Both
d) Teacher-pupil 30:1
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Article 21A fundamental right. 25% EWS reservation upheld Pramati case (2014). No-detention amended 2019 (annual exams Class 5,8). Pupil-teacher ratio 30:1 primary. Key Point: Equity + quality education.
44. K3 scholarship WB girls:
a) ₹10,000 graduation
b) Post HS
c) Marriage
d) Cycle
Answer: a) ₹10,000 graduation
Detailed Explanation: Kanyashree K3 (2020): ₹25,000 (K2) + ₹10,000 UG admission for unmarried girls. Retention till marriage/25 years. UNESCO prize 2017. Key Point: Higher education incentive.
45. Swachh Vidyalaya campaign:
a) Toilets schools
b) Hygiene
c) Both
d) Digital
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Swachh Bharat Mission (2014): toilets for girls’ attendance, handwash stations, waste segregation. 11.89 lakh school toilets built. Key Point: Dignity + health focus.
46. Student Police Cadet WB:
a) Discipline training
b) Classes 8-12
c) Traffic wardens
d) All
Answer: d) All
Detailed Explanation: Launched 2012: parade drill, traffic management, first aid, life skills. 2 lakh cadets trained. Key Point: Youth civic engagement.
47. Article 370 abrogated:
a) 5 Aug 2019
b) J&K Reorganisation
c) Both
d) 1990
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: Presidential Order C.O. 272 revoked temporary provisions. J&K, Ladakh Union Territories. Supreme Court upheld 2023. Key Point: Constitutional integration.
48. First PM India:
a) Nehru
b) Patel interim
c) Both
d) Ambedkar
Answer: a) Nehru
Detailed Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru (15 Aug 1947 – 27 May 1964), 17 years 7 months. First cabinet oath Viceroy Mountbatten. Key Point: Architect modern India.
49. Quit India resolution:
a) 1942 Gowalia Tank
b) Gandhi
c) Both
d) 1930
Answer: c) Both
Detailed Explanation: 8 Aug 1942 Mumbai session. “Do or Die” speech. Underground leaders: JP Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali. Key Point: Mass civil disobedience peak.
50. WBSSC Group C exam pattern:
a) 60 MCQ 60 marks
b) 1 hr 15 min
c) Negative marking
d) 60 questions 60 marks no negative
Answer: d) 60 questions 60 marks no negative
Detailed Explanation: Offline OMR, 110 minutes duration, qualifying interview 10 marks. Subjects: GA 20, English 10, Reasoning 10, Arithmetic 20. Syllabus Class X level. Key Point: Merit = Written + Interview.**