SET 2 — WBSSC Group C General Awareness
Topic Distribution: Indian Constitution (1–10) | NEP & WB School Education (11–20) | Gender Awareness & Rules (21–25) | Indian Popular Culture (26–30) | Basic Computer Knowledge (31–35) | Environment Awareness (36–40) | Current Economic Affairs (41–45) | Sports (46–48) | Science Innovations (49–50)
1. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 16
d) Article 17
Answer: b) Article 15
Explanation: Article 15 prohibits State discrimination against citizens on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, and allows special provisions for disadvantaged groups.
2. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) relates to:
a) Panchayati Raj Institutions
b) Urban Local Bodies
c) Cooperative Societies
d) Right to Education
Answer: a) Panchayati Raj Institutions
Explanation: 73rd Amendment added Part IX and 11th Schedule, establishing three-tier Panchayati Raj (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad) with 29 subjects devolved to them.
3. Which writ is issued by courts to secure the release of a person from unlawful detention?
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Certiorari
Answer: a) Habeas Corpus
Explanation: Habeas Corpus (Latin: “you may have the body”) compels authorities to produce a detained person before court to examine legality of detention; can’t be suspended except during emergency.
4. Article 368 of the Constitution deals with:
a) Emergency provisions
b) Amendment procedure
c) Citizenship
d) Fundamental Duties
Answer: b) Amendment procedure
Explanation: Article 368 outlines the process for constitutional amendments: simple majority for some, special majority for others, and special majority + half state ratification for federal features.
5. The concept of “Basic Structure” of Constitution was propounded in which landmark case?
a) Golaknath Case (1967)
b) Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
c) Minerva Mills Case (1980)
d) S.R. Bommai Case (1994)
Answer: b) Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973)
Explanation: 13-judge bench ruled Parliament can amend any part but not the “basic structure” (democracy, secularism, federalism, judicial review, etc.), limiting amendment power.
6. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions for administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram?
a) 5th Schedule
b) 6th Schedule
c) 7th Schedule
d) 8th Schedule
Answer: b) 6th Schedule
Explanation: 6th Schedule provides Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) with legislative, executive, and judicial powers in tribal areas for self-governance and cultural preservation.
7. The Right to Property was removed as a Fundamental Right by which Constitutional Amendment?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 1st Amendment
d) 24th Amendment
Answer: b) 44th Amendment
Explanation: 44th Amendment (1978) deleted Article 31 (Right to Property), making it a legal right under Article 300A; aimed to facilitate land reforms without compensation disputes.
8. Under Article 243G, Panchayats are empowered to implement schemes for which subject?
a) Agriculture
b) Education only
c) Foreign affairs
d) Defence
Answer: a) Agriculture
Explanation: 11th Schedule lists 29 subjects including agriculture, irrigation, health, education, women/children welfare; states devolve powers and funds to Panchayats for implementation.
9. Which Article empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions?
a) Article 72
b) Article 74
c) Article 111
d) Article 123
Answer: a) Article 72
Explanation: Article 72 grants President mercy powers for death sentences, court-martial punishments, and offences against Union laws; exercised on advice of Council of Ministers.
10. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment (2019) introduced 10% reservation for:
a) OBCs in central jobs
b) Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
c) SC/ST in private sector
d) Women in legislatures
Answer: b) Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
Explanation: 103rd Amendment added Articles 15(6) and 16(6) providing 10% reservation to EWS (annual income < ₹8 lakh, excluding property criteria) in education and public employment.
11. NEP 2020 aims to achieve 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education by:
a) 2025
b) 2030
c) 2035
d) 2040
Answer: b) 2030
Explanation: NEP sets ambitious targets: 100% GER pre-primary to secondary by 2030, universal foundational literacy/numeracy by 2025, and 50% GER in higher education by 2035.
12. Under NEP 2020, the new academic session will follow which calendar?
a) January–December
b) April–March
c) July–June
d) September–August
Answer: b) April–March
Explanation: NEP proposes aligning academic year with financial year (April 1–March 31) to synchronise education planning with government budgeting and fiscal cycles.
13. The National Curriculum Framework (NCF) under NEP 2020 has been released for which levels?
a) School, Teacher, Higher Education, Adult Education
b) Primary only
c) Secondary only
d) Vocational only
Answer: a) School, Teacher, Higher Education, Adult Education
Explanation: Four NCFs released (2022-23): NCFSE (School Education), NCFT (Teachers), NCFHE (Higher Education), NCFAL (Adult Education), emphasizing holistic, multidisciplinary learning.
14. In West Bengal, which board conducts the Higher Secondary (HS) examination for Class 12?
a) WBBSE
b) WBCHSE
c) CBSE
d) ICSE
Answer: b) WBCHSE
Explanation: West Bengal Council of Higher Secondary Education (WBCHSE) conducts HS exams; students choose streams (Science/Arts/Commerce) for college admissions via UG counselling.
15. NEP 2020 proposes mother tongue/multilingualism as medium of instruction up to which grade?
a) Grade 3
b) Grade 5
c) Grade 8
d) Grade 10
Answer: b) Grade 5
Explanation: NEP strongly recommends mother tongue/regional language as medium till Grade 5 (preferably Grade 8), with three-language formula (no language imposition) for multilingualism.
16. The “Vidya Samiksha Kendra” under NEP 2020 uses which technology for school monitoring?
a) AI and Big Data
b) Blockchain
c) Quantum Computing
d) AR/VR only
Answer: a) AI and Big Data
Explanation: Vidya Samiksha Kendra leverages AI, ML, and big data analytics for real-time monitoring of school performance, student learning outcomes, and resource allocation.
17. West Bengal’s “Taruner Swapno” scholarship targets students of which category?
a) Minority students (Class 11-12)
b) SC/ST students only
c) Meritorious general students
d) Girls only
Answer: a) Minority students (Class 11-12)
Explanation: Taruner Swapno provides ₹1000/month to minority community students studying Class 11-12 in West Bengal, promoting higher education retention among minorities.
18. Under NEP, the National Testing Agency (NTA) will conduct common entrance for which level?
a) School boards
b) Higher education admissions
c) Teacher recruitment
d) Civil services
Answer: b) Higher education admissions
Explanation: NTA will conduct common, modular entrance exams for universities (CUET), replacing multiple college-specific tests with fair, transparent, computer-based assessments.
19. Which NEP 2020 provision aims to integrate sports and arts into mainstream curriculum?
a) 6% GDP on education
b) School complexes/clusters
c) Saturation of sports-integrated schools
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: NEP targets 6% GDP education spend, school complexes for resource sharing, and establishing 10,000 sports-integrated schools nationwide.
20. The West Bengal School Service Commission (WBSSC) recruits for which group positions?
a) Group A (Headmasters)
b) Group B (Teachers)
c) Group C (Clerk) & Group D (Peon)
d) Professors only
Answer: c) Group C (Clerk) & Group D (Peon)
Explanation: WBSSC conducts recruitment for non-teaching staff: Group C (clerical), Group D (support staff) in state-aided schools through written exams and interviews.
21. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act was passed in:
a) 1997
b) 2005
c) 2013
d) 2020
Answer: c) 2013
Explanation: POSH Act 2013 (based on Vishakha guidelines) mandates Internal Complaints Committees (ICC) in organisations with 10+ employees, including educational institutions.
22. Under POCSO Act 2012, what is the minimum punishment for aggravated penetrative sexual assault on child?
a) 10 years RI
b) 20 years RI
c) Life imprisonment
d) Death penalty
Answer: c) Life imprisonment
Explanation: Section 6 POCSO prescribes minimum 20 years RI or life imprisonment (remainder of natural life); death penalty for cases causing child death or vegetative state.
23. The “One Stop Centre” scheme supports women affected by:
a) Violence only
b) Economic issues only
c) Violence, domestic abuse, sexual assault, trafficking
d) Employment discrimination only
Answer: c) Violence, domestic abuse, sexual assault, trafficking
Explanation: Sakhi One Stop Centres (OSC) provide integrated support (medical, legal, psychological, shelter) under Nirbhaya Fund to women survivors of all forms of gender-based violence.
24. Which constitutional provision enables special provisions for women and children?
a) Article 15(3)
b) Article 16(4)
c) Article 39(a)
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Article 15(3) allows special provisions for women/children; 16(4) for backward classes; 39(a) DPSP directs equal pay, livelihood opportunities.
25. The “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao” scheme was launched in which district (first CSR district)?
a) Panipat, Haryana
b) Jhajjar, Haryana
c) Rewari, Haryana
d) Gurugram, Haryana
Answer: a) Panipat, Haryana
Explanation: BBBP launched 22 January 2015 in Panipat (Haryana), targeting districts with lowest child sex ratio (<918 girls/1000 boys), combining awareness, enforcement, and incentives.
26. Which folk art form of Bengal depicts mythological stories on cloth using natural colours?
a) Kalighat Patachitra
b) Jamini Roy style
c) Jamdani weaving
d) Kantha embroidery
Answer: a) Kalighat Patachitra
Explanation: Kalighat Patachitra, originating from Kalighat temple in Kolkata (19th century), uses scroll paintings with bold outlines, social satire, mythological themes using natural pigments.
27. The UNESCO-listed Chhau dance is performed in which three states?
a) Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal
b) Bihar, UP, MP
c) Assam, Manipur, Nagaland
d) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
Answer: a) Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal
Explanation: Chhau dance (masked tribal martial dance) has three styles: Seraikella (Jharkhand), Mayurbhanj (Odisha), Purulia (West Bengal), blending dance, drama, music with seasonal themes.
28. Which Bengali sweets received GI tag for their unique cheese-based preparation?
a) Rasgulla (Odisha)
b) Sandesh
c) Mishti Doi
d) Rosogolla (WB)
Answer: d) Rosogolla (WB)
Explanation: GI-tagged Rosogolla (2017) from Kolkata uses chhena (paneer), soaked in sugar syrup; distinct from Odisha’s version; symbolises Bengal’s confectionery tradition.
29. The Nobel Prize-winning Rabindra Sangeet comprises how many songs composed by Tagore?
a) 500
b) 1,200
c) 2,200
d) Over 5,000
Answer: c) 2,200
Explanation: Rabindra Sangeet (Rabindranath Tagore’s songs) number over 2,200, blending classical, folk, western influences; UNESCO-recognised as part of Bengal cultural heritage.
30. Which contemporary Indian festival involves community pandals and artistic themes beyond religious worship?
a) Ganesh Chaturthi
b) Durga Puja (Kolkata)
c) Onam
d) Pongal
Answer: b) Durga Puja (Kolkata)
Explanation: UNESCO-listed (2021) Durga Puja in Kolkata transforms into 5-day cultural extravaganza with pandals as art installations, artisan fairs, music, theatre, UNESCO Intangible Heritage.
31. The binary system in computers uses which two digits?
a) 0 and 1
b) 1 and 2
c) A and B
d) + and –
Answer: a) 0 and 1
Explanation: Binary (base-2) uses only 0 (off/false) and 1 (on/true); all computer data processed as combinations of these bits (binary digits), fundamental to digital computing.
32. Which protocol is used for secure web communication (HTTPS)?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) SSL/TLS
d) SMTP
Answer: c) SSL/TLS
Explanation: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)/TLS (Transport Layer Security) encrypts data between browser and server, ensuring confidentiality, integrity, authentication for online transactions.
33. The CPU consists of which three main components?
a) ALU, CU, Registers
b) RAM, ROM, Cache
c) Input, Output, Storage
d) Monitor, Keyboard, Mouse
Answer: a) ALU, CU, Registers
Explanation: ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit) performs calculations; CU (Control Unit) directs operations; Registers provide ultra-fast temporary storage for immediate data processing.
34. What is the maximum data storage capacity of a standard DVD?
a) 650 MB
b) 4.7 GB
c) 25 GB
d) 128 GB
Answer: b) 4.7 GB
Explanation: Single-layer DVD holds 4.7 GB (4.38 GB usable); dual-layer 8.5 GB; Blu-ray offers 25/50 GB, but DVD remains standard for video distribution.
35. Which type of software translates high-level programming languages to machine code?
a) System Software
b) Utility Software
c) Compiler
d) Assembler
Answer: c) Compiler
Explanation: Compiler translates entire source code (C++, Java) to machine code executable; Interpreter translates line-by-line (Python); Assembler for assembly language.
36. The “Ozone Hole” was first discovered over which continent?
a) Arctic
b) Antarctica
c) North Pole
d) Himalayas
Answer: b) Antarctica
Explanation: Ozone hole (stratospheric ozone depletion >60%) first detected over Antarctica in 1985 by British scientists; caused mainly by CFCs from human activities.
37. India’s first National Park established in 1936 is:
a) Kaziranga
b) Corbett
c) Kanha
d) Gir
Answer: b) Corbett
Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand), established 1936 as Hailey National Park, India’s first; tiger reserve protecting Royal Bengal tigers and endangered species.
38. Which pollutant is primarily responsible for acid rain?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Particulate matter
d) Ozone
Answer: b) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation: SO₂ and NOₓ from coal power plants, industries react with atmospheric water forming sulphuric/nitric acid rain (pH<5.6), damaging forests, buildings, aquatic life.
39. The Ramsar Convention (1971) is concerned with conservation of:
a) Forests
b) Deserts
c) Wetlands
d) Mountains
Answer: c) Wetlands
Explanation: Ramsar Convention protects wetlands of international importance; India has 75 Ramsar sites (e.g., Sundarbans, Chilika Lake, Keoladeo Ghana), crucial for biodiversity, flood control.
40. India’s Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC) under Paris Agreement commits to creating how much carbon sink by 2030?
a) 1 billion tonnes
b) 2.5-3 billion tonnes
c) 5 billion tonnes
d) 10 billion tonnes
Answer: b) 2.5-3 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent
Explanation: Updated NDC (2022) targets additional carbon sink of 2.5-3 Bn tonnes CO₂eq through forests/agroforestry; supports 45% emissions intensity reduction by 2030.
41. India’s current fiscal deficit target for FY25-26 as per Budget 2026 is:
a) 4.5% of GDP
b) 4.9% of GDP
c) 5.1% of GDP
d) 3.9% of GDP
Answer: b) 4.9% of GDP
Explanation: Union Budget 2026 targets fiscal consolidation to 4.9% GDP deficit (from 5.1% FY25), aiming for below 4.5% by FY27 through capital expenditure and revenue buoyancy.
42. Which scheme provides collateral-free loans up to ₹2 crore to MSMEs?
a) Mudra Yojana
b) Stand-Up India
c) Emergency Credit Line Guarantee (ECLG)
d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro & Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
Answer: d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro & Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)
Explanation: CGTMSE covers 75-85% loan guarantee for MSME loans up to ₹2 crore without collateral, crucial for small businesses during COVID recovery.
43. India’s foreign exchange reserves crossed which milestone in January 2026?
a) $600 billion
b) $650 billion
c) $700 billion
d) $750 billion
Answer: c) $700 billion
Explanation: RBI’s forex reserves reached $701.23 billion (Jan 2026), world’s 4th largest, providing 11+ months import cover, strengthening rupee stability amid global uncertainties.
44. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers how many sectors as of 2026?
a) 10
b) 14
c) 20
d) 27
Answer: b) 14
Explanation: PLI 2.0 covers 14 sectors (mobile, pharma, electronics, auto, textiles, food processing etc.) with ₹1.97 lakh crore outlay to boost manufacturing, exports, jobs.
45. India’s unemployment rate (PLFS) for urban areas in Q3 FY26 stood at:
a) 5.8%
b) 6.5%
c) 7.2%
d) 8.1%
Answer: a) 5.8%
Explanation: PLFS Q3 FY26 reported urban unemployment at 5.8% (down from 6.6%), reflecting manufacturing/services recovery, though youth unemployment remains higher at 17%.
46. Who became the first Indian to win a medal in sailing at Olympics (Paris 2024)?
a) Neeraj Chopra
b) Manu Bhaker
c) Vishnu Saravanan
d) Shubhankar Sharma
Answer: c) Vishnu Saravanan
Explanation: Cdr. Vishnu Saravanan won Bronze in Men’s Dinghy ILCA7 at Paris 2024, India’s first-ever Olympic sailing medal, highlighting Navy’s sports development programme.
47. The Indian men’s hockey team won Bronze at which consecutive Olympics (ending Paris 2024)?
a) 2nd consecutive
b) 3rd consecutive
c) 4th consecutive
d) First since 1980
Answer: b) 3rd consecutive
Explanation: India won Bronze at Tokyo 2020, Paris 2024, and Commonwealth Games 2022; first Olympic medal streak since 1968 Mexico (Gold), reviving hockey legacy.
48. Which cricketer became the first to score 40,000 international runs (Feb 2026)?
a) Virat Kohli
b) Rohit Sharma
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Babar Azam
Answer: a) Virat Kohli
Explanation: Virat Kohli reached 40,000 international runs during IND vs ENG Test series Feb 2026, ahead of Sachin (34,357); 2nd fastest after Tendulkar in innings count.
49. The mRNA vaccine technology, used in COVID-19 vaccines, was pioneered by which scientists (Nobel 2021)?
a) James Watson & Francis Crick
b) Kary Mullis
c) Katalin Karikó & Drew Weissman
d) Robert Malone
Answer: c) Katalin Karikó & Drew Weissman
Explanation: Karikó-Weissman modified mRNA to avoid immune rejection, enabling Pfizer-BioNTech/Moderna vaccines; revolutionary for rapid vaccine development against future pandemics.
50. India’s Gaganyaan mission aims to send astronauts to space by:
a) 2024
b) 2025
c) 2026
d) 2028
Answer: c) 2026
Explanation: ISRO’s Gaganyaan (first human spaceflight) targets 2026 launch with 3 astronauts orbiting Earth for 3-7 days; unmanned tests completed, crew module ready.