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WBSSC Group C Mock Test Set 35: Advanced Practice | Clerk Exam Solved Paper

Mock Test Set 35 – WBSSC Group C

📋 MOCK TEST – SET 35

WBSSC Group C (Clerk) — Advanced Level
Total: 60 Questions  |  GA: 20  |  English: 10  |  Reasoning: 10  |  Arithmetic: 20  |  Click option to check answer
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. Under NEP 2020, ‘PARAKH’ stands for: NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
PARAKH = Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development. Established as a constituent unit of NCERT under NEP 2020. Mandated to: set norms for student assessment and evaluation, guide State/UT boards for reform, conduct large-scale assessments (NCERT’s NAS), and review Board exam design. Aims to shift from rote-based to competency-based assessment.
Q.2. NEP 2020 recommends that Board examinations should be offered at least ________ a year to reduce stress. NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
NEP 2020 recommends that Board exams be offered at least twice a year so students have a chance to improve. Students will be allowed to choose which score to count. This reduces high-stakes pressure of a single exam. Exams should test core competencies rather than memorisation. Formative assessments (portfolio, projects) to supplement Board scores.
Q.3. The ‘Quit India Movement’ (August 1942) was launched with the slogan: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Quit India Movement (August 1942): Gandhi gave the slogan “Do or Die” (Karo ya Maro) at the Bombay session of the Congress on 8 August 1942. The British called it “August Kranti.” Operation August Kranti: Gandhi, Nehru, Patel, and virtually the entire Congress leadership arrested. Underground movement led by Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali (hoisted the flag at Gowalia Tank Maidan). “Jai Hind” = Subhash Chandra Bose. “Inquilab Zindabad” = Bhagat Singh.
Q.4. ‘Partition of Bengal’ (1905) was done by Viceroy Lord Curzon and was annulled in: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Partition of Bengal (16 October 1905): Lord Curzon divided Bengal into East Bengal & Assam (Muslim majority) and West Bengal (Hindu majority). Indians observed it as a day of mourning. Sparked Swadeshi Movement — boycott of British goods, promotion of Indian products. Annulled in 1911 at Delhi Durbar (King George V). Same year: capital shifted from Calcutta to Delhi.
Q.5. The ‘Kalimpong’ hill station in West Bengal is situated on the banks of which river? West Bengal
Answer: (2) Teesta
Kalimpong (Kalimpong district, WB) is a hill town perched on a ridge above the Teesta gorge. The Teesta River flows below in the valley. Altitude ~1,250 m. Known for: Durpin Hill, Zang Dhok Palri Monastery, flower nurseries (orchids, cacti), and views of Kanchenjunga. Once a major trading post on the Silk Route between India and Tibet.
Q.6. ‘Panchayati Raj’ institutions in India were given constitutional status by: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992): added Part IX (Articles 243–243O) and 11th Schedule (29 subjects) to give constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). Key features: three-tier system (Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad), elections every 5 years, 1/3 reservation for women, State Finance Commission, State Election Commission. Came into force: 24 April 1993 (National Panchayati Raj Day).
Q.7. ‘Muktijuddho’ (Liberation War) refers to the independence struggle of: Current Affairs / History
Answer: (2)
Muktijuddho (Muktijuddha) = “Liberation War” in Bengali — refers to Bangladesh’s War of Independence (1971). East Pakistan declared independence as Bangladesh on 26 March 1971. India intervened militarily (Operation Trident, Operation Vijay — 1971 Indo-Pak War). Pakistan surrendered on 16 December 1971 (celebrated as Vijay Diwas in India). Mukti Bahini = Bangladeshi freedom fighters.
Q.8. ‘Nuclear Fission’ was first experimentally demonstrated by: Science
Answer: (2)
Nuclear Fission: first demonstrated experimentally by Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann (1938) — they bombarded uranium with neutrons and found barium (lighter element), proving the nucleus had split. Lise Meitner and Otto Frisch provided theoretical explanation (1939). Enrico Fermi built first nuclear reactor (Chicago Pile-1, 1942). Manhattan Project used fission for atomic bomb (1945).
Q.9. The ‘Wavell Plan’ (1945) proposed: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Wavell Plan (June 1945): Viceroy Lord Wavell proposed reconstituting the Executive Council so that Hindus and Muslims would have equal representation (except Viceroy and C-in-C). Discussed at Shimla Conference (1945). Failed because Jinnah insisted on Muslim League having exclusive right to nominate all Muslim members. Congress disagreed. Led to 1946 elections and Cabinet Mission.
Q.10. ‘PM Gati Shakti — National Master Plan’ was launched primarily to: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
PM Gati Shakti — National Master Plan (launched October 2021): A digital GIS platform integrating planning of infrastructure across 16 central ministries (roads, railways, ports, waterways, airports, logistics, etc.). Aims to: reduce logistics cost (currently ~13% of GDP; target ~8%), eliminate silos in planning, enable multimodal connectivity. Inspired by Bharatmala and Sagarmala programmes.
Q.11. The ‘Speaker of the Lok Sabha’ is elected by: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Speaker of Lok Sabha: elected by Lok Sabha members by a simple majority vote (Article 93). Holds office during the term of the Lok Sabha. Removed by a resolution of Lok Sabha by effective majority (Article 94) — notice of 14 days required. During his/her absence, Deputy Speaker presides. Speaker: Om Birla (18th Lok Sabha, 2024). Father of the House of the People.
Q.12. ‘Cooch Behar Palace’ (Victor Jubilee Palace) in West Bengal is an example of which architectural style? West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Cooch Behar Palace (Victor Jubilee Palace): Built in 1887 by Maharaja Nripendra Narayan. Designed by British architect W. Emerson in Italian Renaissance style — its central dome is modelled on St. Peter’s Basilica in Rome. Also resembles Buckingham Palace in layout. Cooch Behar was a princely state; merged with India in 1949. Now maintained by ASI.
Q.13. India’s ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’ is governed by: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
UPI developed and governed by NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) — an umbrella organisation for retail payment systems in India. NPCI also operates: RuPay, IMPS, NACH, BBPS, Bharat BillPay, FASTag. RBI regulates the payment ecosystem broadly, but NPCI directly operates UPI. Launched 2016. India processes the highest number of real-time payments globally (2023–24: over 13,000 crore UPI transactions).
Q.14. ‘Question Hour’ in the Indian Parliament — during which oral questions are asked — occurs: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Question Hour: the first hour of each sitting of Parliament (11 AM–12 Noon). Ministers answer questions by MPs. Three types: (1) Starred Questions (oral, with supplementary), (2) Unstarred (written answer), (3) Short Notice Questions. No Question Hour on the day Budget is presented. Zero Hour follows immediately after Question Hour (12 noon onwards).
Q.15. ‘Darjeeling Himalayan Railway’ (Toy Train) was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (DHR) — UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1999. Called the “Toy Train” (narrow gauge, 2 ft). Built 1879–81. Travels from New Jalpaiguri to Darjeeling (~88 km). Uses the famous Z-reverses and loops (Batasia Loop) to climb steep gradients. Extended WHS listing to include Nilgiri Mountain Railway (2005) and Kalka-Shimla Railway (2008) as “Mountain Railways of India.”
Q.16. The ‘National Mission on Education through ICT (NME-ICT)’ and ‘SWAYAM’ platform together aim to: NEP 2020 / Education
Answer: (2)
SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds): India’s national MOOC platform launched 2017. Offers free online courses from Class 9 to postgraduate level. Courses by IITs, IIMs, Central Universities. Credits earned on SWAYAM can be transferred to degree through ABC. NEP 2020 emphasises SWAYAM integration. Over 1.5 crore enrolments. Under MoE. Complements DIKSHA (school level) and SWAYAM Prabha (DTH channels).
Q.17. ‘Dialysis’ is a procedure used when which organ fails to function properly? Science
Answer: (2)
Dialysis = artificial filtration of blood when the kidneys fail (renal failure). Kidneys normally filter ~180 litres of blood daily, removing urea, creatinine, excess salts. In dialysis: blood is passed through a semi-permeable membrane (haemodialysis) or peritoneum acts as filter (peritoneal dialysis). Liver failure → liver transplant/MARS. Heart failure → pacemaker/LVAD. Lungs → ventilator/ECMO.
Q.18. The ‘Finance Commission’ of India is constituted under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Finance Commission — Article 280. Constituted by President every 5 years (or earlier). Recommends: (a) distribution of taxes between Centre and States, (b) grants-in-aid to States, (c) measures to augment State finances. 16th Finance Commission (2024): Chairman = Dr. Arvind Panagariya. Gives recommendations for 2026–31. 15th FC Chairman: N.K. Singh (2021–26 period).
Q.19. ‘Poush Mela’ — a major cultural fair — is held every year at: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Poush Mela (Poush Utsav): Annual winter cultural festival held at Shantiniketan (Birbhum) on the Visva-Bharati University campus during the Bengali month of Poush (December–January). Established by Maharshi Debendranath Tagore in 1894. Features Baul and folk music, handicrafts, rural art, handloom products. One of the largest rural fairs of Bengal. Rabindranath Tagore enriched its cultural dimension.
Q.20. ‘ISRO’s Aditya-L1 mission’ is designed to study: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
Aditya-L1: India’s first solar observation mission. Launched 2 September 2023 by PSLV-C57. Placed in halo orbit around Lagrange Point 1 (L1) — ~1.5 million km from Earth. Studies: solar corona, solar wind, solar flares, coronal mass ejections (CMEs), and their impact on Earth’s space weather. 7 payloads including VELC (coronagraph). Reached L1 on 6 January 2024.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘TACITURN’:
Answer: (2)
Taciturn = habitually reserved or silent; not given to conversation. Synonyms: Reserved, Reticent, Uncommunicative, Laconic, Close-mouthed. Antonym: Garrulous, Talkative, Loquacious, Voluble. “The taciturn professor rarely spoke unless asked a direct question.” Do not confuse with “tacit” (understood without being stated).
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘EPHEMERAL’:
Answer: (2)
Ephemeral = lasting only a very short time; transitory. Antonyms: Permanent, Enduring, Eternal, Everlasting, Perpetual, Lasting. Synonyms: Transient, Fleeting, Momentary, Transitory. “The ephemeral beauty of cherry blossoms.” Antonym usage: “Diamond is a permanent testament to love.”
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2)
Accommodation = A-C-C-O-M-M-O-D-A-T-I-O-N. Double ‘c’ AND double ‘m’. Most common error: single ‘c’ (accomodation) or single ‘m’. Memory trick: “Accommodation has double c AND double m” — it accommodates both! Other common double-letter words: necessary (1c, 2s), committee (2m, 2t, 2e), occurrence (2c, 2r).
Q.24. Fill in the blank (Inversion/Emphasis): ________ did I realise the gravity of the situation.
Answer: (2) Only then
Only then did I realise…” — When “only then” begins a sentence, subject-auxiliary inversion occurs. Other inversion triggers: Only after, Only when, Not until, Rarely, Never, Hardly, Scarcely, No sooner. Correct structure: “Only then + auxiliary + subject + main verb.” Options (1) and (4) don’t trigger inversion; (3) “Rarely did I” is also grammatically possible but (2) is the best fit here.
Q.25. Identify the sentence with CORRECT Tense usage:
Answer: (2)
“By the time he arrived (Simple Past)…she had already left (Past Perfect).” When two past events occur, the earlier one uses Past Perfect. “By the time” clause with past tense → other clause must be Past Perfect. (1) ✗: “left” should be “had left.” (3) ✗: tense mix-up. (4) ✗: awkward and incorrect sequence.
Q.26. Idiom: “The project has been put on the back burner.” The underlined phrase means:
Answer: (2)
“Put on the back burner” = to postpone, give lower priority, set aside for now. From cooking: back burner of a stove = lower heat, used for slow/low-priority cooking. “Front burner” = high priority. “The merger talks have been put on the back burner due to the economic crisis.” Synonyms: shelved, deferred, deprioritised.
Q.27. Spot the error: “Being a rainy day, (A) / we decided (B) / to stay (C) / indoors. (D)”
Answer: (1) A — Dangling Participle
“Being a rainy day” is a participial phrase that must modify the subject of the main clause. But “we” cannot be “a rainy day” — this is a dangling participle. Correct: “It being a rainy day, we decided to stay indoors.” OR “As it was a rainy day, we decided to stay indoors.” The participial phrase must logically match the grammatical subject.
Q.28. Change to Direct Speech: She asked him if he had finished his homework.
Answer: (2)
Indirect: “She asked him if he had finished his homework.” Converting to Direct: (a) Remove “if,” (b) reverse backshift: “had finished” → “have finished” (Present Perfect), (c) change pronoun “he” → “you,” “his” → “your,” (d) add question mark: “Have you finished your homework?” Options (1) and (3): wrong pronoun. Option (4): “Did you finished” = incorrect.
Q.29. One word substitution: A person who pretends to be what he is not — especially in matters of religion or morality.
Answer: (2)
Hypocrite = a person who pretends to have virtues, beliefs, or moral standards they do not actually possess. Atheist = one who doesn’t believe in God. Agnostic = one who believes God’s existence cannot be known. Heretic = one who holds opinions contrary to established religious doctrine. Sycophant = flatterer. Apostate = one who abandons their religion.
Q.30. Spot the error: “Scarcely had (A) / he entered the hall (B) / when the lights (C) / went out. (D)”
Answer: (4) No error
“Scarcely had he entered the hall when the lights went out” is grammatically correct. With Scarcely / Hardly / Barely, the correct conjunction is “when”. Only “No sooner” takes “than”. Rule: Scarcely/Hardly/Barely + Past Perfect + when + Simple Past ✓. No sooner + Past Perfect + than + Simple Past ✓. There is no error in this sentence.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Eight people A–H sit in two parallel rows of 4, facing each other. Row 1 (North-facing): A, B, C, D. Row 2 (South-facing): E, F, G, H. A faces F. B is 2nd to the right of A. G is not at any end. E is immediate right of F. C faces H. Where does D sit?
Answer: (3) 2nd from left of Row 1, facing E
Row 1 positions L1–L4. A faces F → same column. A=L1, B=L3 (2nd right of A). Row 2: F=L1 (faces A). E=L2 (immediate right of F). G not at end → G=L3. H=L4. C faces H(L4) → C=L4. Remaining in Row 1: D=L2. Final arrangement — Row 1: A(L1), D(L2), B(L3), C(L4). Row 2: F(L1), E(L2), G(L3), H(L4). D is at L2 = 2nd from left, facing E. ✓
Q.32. Letter Series: A, C, F, J, O, ___
Answer: (2) U
A=1, C=3(+2), F=6(+3), J=10(+4), O=15(+5), ?(+6)=21=U. Differences: +2,+3,+4,+5,+6 (increasing by 1 each time). 15+6=21=U.
Q.33. Analogy: Ornithology : Birds :: Ichthyology : ?
Answer: (2)
Ornithology = study of birds. Ichthyology = study of fish. Other: Entomology=insects, Herpetology=reptiles/amphibians, Mammalogy=mammals, Mycology=fungi, Bryology=mosses, Carcinology=crustaceans.
Q.34. Syllogism: All flowers are plants. Some plants are trees. All trees are wooden.
Conclusions: I. Some flowers are wooden. II. Some plants are wooden. III. Some wooden things are plants.
Answer: (2)
I: All flowers are plants + Some plants are trees → cannot conclude flowers are trees (undistributed middle). I does NOT follow. II: Some plants are trees + All trees are wooden → Some plants are wooden ✓. III: Some plants are wooden → Some wooden things are plants (conversion) ✓. Answer: II and III follow.
Q.35. Calendar: A work is started on 7th March 2024 (Thursday) and is completed in exactly 45 days. On which day does it get completed?
Answer: (4) Sunday
Start: 7 March 2024 (Thursday). Add 45 days: 7 March + 45 days = 21 April 2024. Days of week: 45 mod 7 = 3. Thursday + 3 days = Sunday. Verify: March has 31 days. 31 − 7 = 24 days remaining in March. 45 − 24 = 21st April. 21 April 2024 = Sunday ✓.
Q.36. Number Puzzle: 3→12, 5→30, 7→56, 9→?
Answer: (2) 90
Pattern: n×(n+1). 3×4=12 ✓; 5×6=30 ✓; 7×8=56 ✓; 9×10=90 ✓.
Q.37. Mirror Image: If TEACHER is written as its mirror image, the 3rd letter from the right in the mirror image will be:
Answer: (3) A
TEACHER (7 letters): T-E-A-C-H-E-R. Mirror image reverses the order: R-E-H-C-A-E-T. Now find 3rd letter from the RIGHT of R-E-H-C-A-E-T: reading from right → T(1st), E(2nd), A(3rd). Answer = A.
Q.38. Logical Venn: All poets are writers. Some writers are teachers. All teachers are educated. Which diagram is correct?
Answer: (2)
All poets are writers → Poets ⊂ Writers. Some writers are teachers → partial overlap between Writers and Teachers. All teachers are educated → Teachers ⊂ Educated. Final: Educated (outermost) → Teachers inside Educated → Writers partially overlapping Teachers → Poets fully inside Writers. Answer: (2).
Q.39. Coding-Decoding: In a code, MANGO = NBOHP. What does LEMON mean in the same code?
Answer: (2) MFNPO
Each letter +1: M→N, A→B, N→O, G→H, O→P. MANGO = NBOHP ✓. Apply to LEMON: L→M, E→F, M→N, O→P, N→O = MFNPO. Verify: L(12)+1=M(13) ✓; E(5)+1=F(6) ✓; M(13)+1=N(14) ✓; O(15)+1=P(16) ✓; N(14)+1=O(15) ✓.
Q.40. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): Rajya Sabha is a permanent House; one-third of its members retire every two years.
Answer: (1)
A ✓: Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved — unlike Lok Sabha. R ✓: RS is a permanent House. Members have a 6-year term; 1/3 retire every 2 years (biennial elections). This rotating membership makes dissolution impossible. R correctly explains A. Article 83(1): Rajya Sabha shall not be subject to dissolution.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Simplify: (3⁵ × 3⁻³ × 3⁰) ÷ 3²
Answer: (2) 1
3⁵ × 3⁻³ × 3⁰ = 3^(5−3+0) = 3² = 9. Then 9 ÷ 3² = 9 ÷ 9 = 1.
Q.42. If x + 1/x = 5, find x² + 1/x².
Answer: (2) 23
(x + 1/x)² = x² + 2 + 1/x² = 25. So x² + 1/x² = 25 − 2 = 23.
Q.43. A can do a work in 20 days. B can do the same work in 30 days. C can do it in 60 days. If they all work together, in how many days will the work be completed?
Answer: (2) 10 days
Combined rate = 1/20 + 1/30 + 1/60 = (3+2+1)/60 = 6/60 = 1/10. Time = 10 days.
Q.44. A train 180 m long passes a pole in 12 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 300 m long?
Answer: (2) 32 sec
Speed = 180/12 = 15 m/s. Distance to pass platform = 180+300 = 480 m. Time = 480/15 = 32 sec.
Q.45. A sum of ₹12,000 is invested partly at 8% p.a. SI and partly at 6% p.a. SI. Total interest after 2 years is ₹1,680. How much is invested at 8%?
Answer: (2) ₹6,000
Let at 8% = x. SI: x×8×2/100 + (12000−x)×6×2/100 = 1680. 16x + 144000−12x = 168000. 4x = 24000. x = ₹6,000.
Q.46. Find the mode of: 4, 7, 4, 9, 2, 7, 7, 4, 7, 9, 2
Answer: (2) 7
Frequencies: 4 appears 3 times; 7 appears 4 times; 9 appears 2 times; 2 appears 2 times. Highest frequency = 4 (for number 7). Mode = 7.
Q.47. A shopkeeper gives 20% discount on the marked price and still earns 20% profit. What is the ratio of the cost price to the marked price?
Answer: (2) 2:3
SP = MP×0.8. SP = CP×1.2. So CP×1.2 = MP×0.8. CP/MP = 0.8/1.2 = 2/3. CP:MP = 2:3.
Q.48. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on ₹10,000 for 3 years at 10% p.a. is:
Answer: (2) ₹310
SI = 10000×10×3/100 = ₹3,000. CI: 10000×(1.1)³ = 13,310. CI = ₹3,310. Difference = 3310−3000 = ₹310.
Q.49. Two numbers are in ratio 7:5. Their LCM is 140. Find their HCF.
Answer: (2) 4
Numbers = 7k and 5k. LCM(7k,5k) = 35k = 140. k = 4. Numbers = 28 and 20. HCF(28,20) = 4.
Q.50. The volume of a sphere is 38808 cm³. Find its radius. (π = 22/7)
Answer: (2) 21 cm
(4/3)×(22/7)×r³ = 38808. r³ = 38808×21/88 = 9261. r = ∛9261 = 21 cm (since 21³ = 9261).
Q.51. A tap fills a tank in 6 hours and another tap empties it in 8 hours. If both are opened when the tank is half full, how long will it take to fill the tank completely?
Answer: (2) 12 hours
Net fill rate = 1/6 − 1/8 = 1/24 per hour. Remaining = 1/2. Time = (1/2)/(1/24) = 12 hours.
Q.52. The ratio of present ages of A and B is 4:5. Ten years ago, the ratio was 3:4. Find B’s present age.
Answer: (2) 50 years
A=4x, B=5x. Ten years ago: (4x−10)/(5x−10)=3/4 → 16x−40=15x−30 → x=10. B=5×10=50 years.
Q.53. Out of 100 students, 65 passed in Maths, 55 in Science, and 15 failed in both. How many passed in both?
Answer: (2) 35
Passed in at least one = 100−15 = 85. By inclusion-exclusion: 65+55−both=85. both = 120−85 = 35.
Q.54. Find the value of: cos²30° + sin²60° + tan²45°
Answer: (2) 2.5
cos30°=√3/2 → cos²30°=3/4. sin60°=√3/2 → sin²60°=3/4. tan45°=1 → tan²45°=1. Sum = 3/4+3/4+1 = 3/2+1 = 5/2 = 2.5.
Q.55. The perimeter of a semicircle is 72 cm. Find its area. (π = 22/7)
Answer: (2) 308 cm²
Perimeter of semicircle = r(π+2) = r(22/7+2) = r(36/7) = 72. r = 72×7/36 = 14 cm. Area = (1/2)πr² = (1/2)×(22/7)×196 = 308 cm².
Q.56. A mixture of 60 litres contains milk and water in ratio 2:1. How much water must be added to make the ratio 1:1?
Answer: (2) 20 litres
Milk=40L, Water=20L. To make 1:1: need water=40L. Add = 40−20 = 20 litres.
Q.57. A man purchased an article and sold it for ₹4,500, making a loss of 10%. At what price should he have sold it to gain 10%?
Answer: (2) ₹5,500
SP=4500 at 10% loss → CP=4500/0.9=₹5,000. To gain 10%: SP=5000×1.1=₹5,500.
Q.58. Find the number of diagonals in a polygon with 10 sides.
Answer: (2) 35
Diagonals = n(n−3)/2 = 10×7/2 = 35.
Q.59. A boat goes 30 km upstream in 3 hours and 30 km downstream in 2 hours. Find the speed of the stream.
Answer: (2) 2.5 km/h
Upstream speed=30/3=10 km/h. Downstream speed=30/2=15 km/h. Speed of stream=(15−10)/2=5/2=2.5 km/h.
Q.60. A certain sum becomes ₹6,500 in 2 years and ₹7,250 in 3 years at SI. Find the rate of interest.
Answer: (4) 15%
SI for 1 year = 7250−6500 = ₹750. SI for 2 years = ₹1,500. Principal = 6500−1500 = ₹5,000. Rate = (750×100)/(5000×1) = 15%.

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