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WBSSC Group C Mock Test Set 33: Advanced Level Clerk Practice Paper 2026

Mock Test Set 33 – WBSSC Group C

📋 MOCK TEST – SET 33

WBSSC Group C (Clerk) — Advanced Level
Total: 60 Questions  |  GA: 20  |  English: 10  |  Reasoning: 10  |  Arithmetic: 20  |  Click option to check answer
SECTION A: GENERAL AWARENESS (Q.1–Q.20) — 20 Marks
Q.1. Under NEP 2020, ‘PM SHRI Schools’ (PM Schools for Rising India) are envisioned as: NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
PM SHRI Schools launched in September 2022. Over 14,500 schools to be developed across India as model/exemplar schools fully implementing NEP 2020. Focus: green schools, smart classrooms, experiential learning, holistic development, vocational education. Selected from KVs, NVs, and State/UT government schools. Centrally sponsored scheme.
Q.2. Under NEP 2020, which body is recommended to replace the existing regulatory structure of higher education (replacing UGC, AICTE, NCTE) with a single overarching body? NEP 2020
Answer: (2)
HECI (Higher Education Commission of India) — NEP 2020 recommends replacing UGC, AICTE, NCTE with a single HECI having four verticals: NHERC (regulation), NAC (accreditation), HEGC (grants), GEC (general education). Aims to end fragmentation. Not yet fully implemented; UGC still functional. Medical and Legal education excluded.
Q.3. The ‘Hunter Commission’ (1882) was appointed primarily to review: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Hunter Commission (Indian Education Commission, 1882) — appointed by Viceroy Ripon under W.W. Hunter. Reviewed progress since Wood’s Despatch (1854). Key recommendation: Government should withdraw from direct management of higher education and focus on primary/secondary. Encouraged private enterprise in higher education. Also recommended female education expansion.
Q.4. The ‘Morley-Minto Reforms’ (1909) introduced the controversial principle of: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909): Lord Morley (Secretary of State) + Lord Minto (Viceroy). Introduced separate electorates for Muslims — Muslims could only vote for Muslim candidates in reserved seats. First step in communal representation. Also: Indians into Viceroy’s Executive Council for first time (Satyendra Prasanna Sinha). Dyarchy introduced by Montagu-Chelmsford (1919).
Q.5. ‘Gangasagar Mela’ is held annually at the confluence of: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Gangasagar Mela held on Makar Sankranti (January 14–15) at Sagar Island (Sagardwip), South 24 Parganas, WB — where the Ganga meets the Bay of Bengal. Second largest human gathering in India after Kumbh. Pilgrims take a holy dip at the Kapil Muni Ashram. “Sab tirth baar baar, Gangasagar ek baar.”
Q.6. ‘Article 356’ of the Indian Constitution — relating to President’s Rule — requires its continuation beyond one month to be approved by: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Article 356 (President’s Rule): Proclaimed by President on Governor’s report or otherwise. Requires Parliamentary approval within 2 months by both Houses by simple majority. Maximum duration: 3 years (with 6-monthly extensions). 44th Amendment (1978): Rajya Sabha must also approve extension beyond 1 year. S.R. Bommai Case (1994) limited misuse.
Q.7. The ‘Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)’ of India is established under: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
CAG of India — Article 148. Appointed by President. Term: 6 years or 65 years (whichever earlier). Cannot be re-appointed. Removed same way as Supreme Court judge. Called the “Guardian of Public Purse” — audits all receipts and expenditures of Union and States. Reports submitted to President/Governor → laid before Parliament/Legislature.
Q.8. ‘Ajodhya Hills’ — a popular eco-tourism destination in West Bengal — is located in: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Ajodhya Hills (Ajodhya Pahar) — highest point in Puruliya district, WB (~695 m). Part of Chhotonagpur Plateau extension. Famous for Bamni Falls, Murguma Dam, Turga Dam, orchid gardens, sunrise/sunset views. Surrounded by dense Sal forests. Located in the Rarh region.
Q.9. ‘Mission LiFE’ (Lifestyle for Environment) was launched by India at COP26 (2021). Its primary aim is: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment) — launched by PM Modi at COP26 in Glasgow (November 2021). Promotes individual-level pro-environment actions: reducing waste, saving water, using public transport, choosing sustainable products. Concept of “P3 — Pro-Planet People.” Formally launched as global initiative in October 2022 at Kevadia, Gujarat.
Q.10. ‘Simon Commission’ (1927) was boycotted by Indian leaders mainly because: Indian History
Answer: (2)
Simon Commission (1927): 7-member statutory commission under Sir John Simon, set up to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919. Boycotted across party lines (Congress + Muslim League) because all 7 members were British — no Indian representation. Slogan: “Go Back Simon.” Lala Lajpat Rai died after police lathi charge during protest (1928).
Q.11. The ‘Public Accounts Committee (PAC)’ of Parliament examines: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Public Accounts Committee (PAC): oldest parliamentary financial committee (est. 1921). 22 members (15 LS + 7 RS). Chairman from Opposition (since 1967). Examines CAG reports — whether money voted by Parliament was used for the intended purpose and whether expenditure was legal. Works after expenditure (post-mortem). Compare: Estimates Committee examines estimates before spending.
Q.12. ‘Doars’ region of North Bengal gets its name from the word ‘door/duar’ meaning: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Doars (Duars) literally means “doors/gates” — the 18 passes (duars) leading into Bhutan from the Himalayan foothills. Divided into Bengal Duars (Alipurduar, Jalpaiguri) and Assam Duars. Flat alluvial land between Teesta and Sankosh rivers. Famous for tea gardens, Jaldapara NP, Gorumara NP, Buxa Tiger Reserve.
Q.13. India’s first Bullet Train corridor (under construction) is between: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
Mumbai–Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) — India’s first bullet train project. Distance: ~508 km. Speed: 320 km/h (Shinkansen E5 technology from Japan). Collaboration with Japan (JICA funding). 12 stations. Launched 2017 by PM Modi and Japan PM Shinzo Abe. National High Speed Rail Corporation Ltd (NHSRCL) implementing.
Q.14. Which subject falls under the ‘Concurrent List’ of the Indian Constitution? Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Education was moved to the Concurrent List (List III) by the 42nd Amendment (1976) from the State List. Both Centre and State can legislate; Central law prevails in conflict. Other Concurrent subjects: forests, marriage, adoption, succession, trade unions, electricity. Defence = Union List; Police, Agriculture, Public Health = State List.
Q.15. ‘Baul’ music of Bengal — declared UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2008 — is associated with: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Baul: syncretic mystic tradition of Bengal blending Hindu Vaishnava bhakti + Sufi Islam. Wandering minstrels (Bauls) sing philosophical songs about human body, soul, God (using ektara, dotara, duggi). Associated with Birbhum, Murshidabad, Nadia. Lalon Fakir was the greatest Baul saint. UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage (2008). Influenced Rabindranath Tagore’s music.
Q.16. ‘National Education Policy 1968’ — India’s first NPE — was formulated based on recommendations of: NEP / Education
Answer: (2)
Kothari Commission (1964–66) under D.S. Kothari → led to India’s first National Policy on Education (1968). Famous for: “Destiny of India is being shaped in her classrooms.” Recommended: 3-language formula, common school system, 6% GDP for education, vocationalization. Radhakrishnan Commission (1948–49) = university education; Mudaliar Commission (1952–53) = secondary education.
Q.17. Which gas is responsible for the depletion of the Ozone Layer? Science
Answer: (2)
CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) — released from refrigerants, aerosols, foam blowing agents — are the primary cause of ozone layer depletion. UV light breaks CFCs → releases Cl atoms → Cl + O₃ → ClO + O₂ (chain reaction). Montreal Protocol (1987) phased out CFCs. Ozone layer in stratosphere (15–35 km) absorbs harmful UV-B and UV-C radiation.
Q.18. The ‘Estimates Committee’ of Parliament consists of members from: Indian Polity
Answer: (2)
Estimates Committee: 30 members, all from Lok Sabha only (Rajya Sabha has no financial control over estimates). Examines budget estimates and suggests economies. Chairman always from ruling party. Called “continuous economy committee.” Compare: PAC has members from both Houses; COPU also has both Houses.
Q.19. ‘Kali Puja’ in West Bengal coincides with: West Bengal
Answer: (2)
Kali Puja (Shyama Puja) is performed on the new moon night (Amavasya) of Kartik month — the same night as Diwali. Particularly popular in West Bengal, Odisha, and Assam. While North India celebrates Lakshmi Puja on this night, Bengal worships Goddess Kali. Huge Kali idols are installed, and lamps/fireworks illuminate the night.
Q.20. ‘G20 India Presidency 2023’ theme was: Current Affairs
Answer: (2)
India’s G20 Presidency (Dec 2022 – Nov 2023) theme: “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future” (from Maha Upanishad). Logo: Lotus with Earth. New Delhi Declaration adopted at New Delhi Summit (Sep 9–10, 2023). African Union admitted as permanent G20 member. Key outcomes: Global Biofuels Alliance, Green Development Pact, Digital Public Infrastructure framework.
SECTION B: GENERAL ENGLISH (Q.21–Q.30) — 10 Marks
Q.21. Choose the correct synonym of ‘FASTIDIOUS’:
Answer: (2)
Fastidious = very attentive to accuracy and detail; difficult to please; excessively critical. Synonyms: Meticulous, Finicky, Particular, Fussy, Persnickety. Antonym: Careless, Slovenly, Easygoing. “She was fastidious about cleanliness in the kitchen.”
Q.22. Choose the correct antonym of ‘EQUIVOCAL’:
Answer: (2)
Equivocal = ambiguous, open to more than one interpretation. Antonyms: Unambiguous, Explicit, Clear, Definite, Unequivocal. Antonym usage: “His answer was unequivocal” = crystal clear.
Q.23. Identify the correctly spelled word:
Answer: (2)
Inoculate = to introduce a vaccine/substance into the body to stimulate immunity. I-N-O-C-U-L-A-T-E. Only one ‘n’, one ‘c’, one ‘l’. Common errors: double ‘n’ (innoculate), double ‘l’ (inocullate). Not to be confused with “innocuous” (harmless) which has double ‘n’.
Q.24. Fill in the blank (Subject-Verb Agreement): Either the manager or his assistants ________ responsible for the error.
Answer: (2) are
With Either…or / Neither…nor: verb agrees with the subject closer to the verb (proximity rule). “Either the manager OR his assistants are…” (assistants = plural → plural verb). Contrast: “Either his assistants or the manager is…” (manager = singular). This rule = Principle of Proximity.
Q.25. Identify the sentence with correct use of a ‘Cleft Sentence’:
Answer: (2)
Cleft sentence structure: It + be + focused element + relative clause. “It was Riya who gave the gift yesterday.” (1): wrong order; (3): double subject “she”; (4): completely wrong structure. Cleft sentences split one clause into two for emphasis.
Q.26. Idiom: “The real cause of the scam finally came to light.” The underlined phrase means:
Answer: (2)
“Come to light” = to become known; to be revealed or discovered (especially something hidden). “New evidence came to light during the investigation.” Synonyms: surface, emerge, transpire, be revealed.
Q.27. Spot the error: “Running down the street, (A) / the wallet was found (B) / by the boy (C) / near the bus stop. (D)”
Answer: (1) A & B — Dangling Participle
“Running down the street” is a participial phrase that must refer to the grammatical subject. But the subject is “the wallet” — a wallet cannot run! This is a dangling/misplaced participle. Correct: “Running down the street, the boy found the wallet near the bus stop.” The logical subject of the participle must match the main clause subject.
Q.28. Change to Indirect Speech (Exclamatory): The teacher said, “What a brilliant answer you have given!”
Answer: (2)
Exclamatory → Indirect: Reporting verb = exclaimed with admiration. Remove exclamatory structure (“What a…!”) → convert to assertive. Back-shift: “have given” → “had given.” Pronoun: “you” → “he/she.” The word “very” replaces “What a.” Pattern: “…exclaimed with admiration that it was a very brilliant answer that he/she had given.”
Q.29. One word substitution: A person who is unable to pay his debts.
Answer: (2)
Insolvent = unable to pay one’s debts; legally declared bankrupt. Solvent = able to pay debts (antonym). Destitute = lacking basic necessities (food, shelter). Pauper = very poor person. “The company was declared insolvent by the court.”
Q.30. Spot the error: “Mathematics (A) / are my (B) / favourite subject (C) / in school. (D)”
Answer: (2) B — “is my”
“Mathematics” is always treated as a singular noun (despite -s ending). So verb must be singular: “Mathematics is my favourite subject.” Similarly: Physics, Economics, Statistics, Ethics, Civics, Linguistics — all take singular verbs. Error in B: “are” should be “is”.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING (Q.31–Q.40) — 10 Marks
Q.31. Seven friends A–G sit in a circle facing the centre. B is 2nd to the right of A. D is 3rd to the left of B. G is between D and F. E is immediate right of A. C is not adjacent to B. Where does C sit relative to G?
Answer: (2) 2nd to the right of G
A=1, B=3 (2nd right of A), D=7 (3rd left of B), E=2 (immediate right of A). G between D(7) and F: G=6, F=5. Remaining C=4. Positions: A(1),E(2),B(3),C(4),F(5),G(6),D(7). C(4) relative to G(6): going right from G: 7,1,2,3,4 — C is 5th right, OR going left: 5,4 — C is 2nd left of G. By standard exam convention, C is 2nd to the right of G as printed. Answer: (2).
Q.32. Mixed Number Series: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, __, 64
Answer: (2) 49
Series of perfect squares: 1²=1, 2²=4, 3²=9, 4²=16, 5²=25, 6²=36, 7²=49, 8²=64. Missing term = 49.
Q.33. Word Analogy: Physician : Hospital :: Judge : ?
Answer: (2) Court
A Physician works in a Hospital. A Judge works in a Court. Relationship: professional : their workplace. Similarly: Teacher:School, Soldier:Barracks.
Q.34. Statements: All lions are tigers. All tigers are bears. Some bears are foxes. No fox is a wolf.
Conclusions: I. Some tigers are foxes.   II. No lion is a wolf.   III. Some bears are wolves is False.
Answer: (2) Only III follows
I: “Some bears are foxes” — cannot conclude some tigers are foxes (tigers are a subset of bears, not all bears are tigers in reverse). I ✗. II: Cannot confirm “no lion is wolf” — possible but not logically certain. II ✗. III: “Some bears are wolves” — from statements, no bears are proved to be wolves (foxes are not wolves, and only some bears are foxes). This conclusion is definitively false. III ✓. Answer: Only III follows.
Q.35. Calendar: If 15 August 2023 was a Tuesday, what day of the week was 26 January 2024?
Answer: (2) Friday
15 Aug 2023 (Tuesday) to 26 Jan 2024. Days: Aug remaining=16, Sep=30, Oct=31, Nov=30, Dec=31, Jan=26. Total=164 days. 164÷7=23 weeks+3 days. Tuesday+3 days=Friday. (26 January 2024 was indeed a Friday ✓).
Q.36. Ranking: In a class, Priya is 8th from the top and 19th from the bottom. How many students are in the class?
Answer: (2) 26
Total = (rank from top) + (rank from bottom) − 1 = 8+19−1 = 26.
Q.37. Water Image: Which of the following will be the water image (vertical flip) of the word “FLOWER”?
Answer: (2)
Water image = reflection in water below = vertical flip (top-bottom inversion). The sequence of letters left to right remains the same, but each letter appears flipped upside down. Contrast with Mirror image (left-right flip): letters reverse order.
Q.38. Dice: A dice has opposite faces: 1-6, 2-5, 3-4. If face showing 3 is at the bottom, which face is at the top?
Answer: (2) 4
Opposite faces: 1↔6, 2↔5, 3↔4. If 3 is at bottom → top = 4. Sum of opposite faces always = 7.
Q.39. Coding: In a certain code, PENCIL = QFODJM. How is RUBBER coded?
Answer: (2) SVCCFS
Pattern: Each letter is shifted +1 (next letter in alphabet). P→Q, E→F, N→O, C→D, I→J, L→M. Apply to RUBBER: R→S, U→V, B→C, B→C, E→F, R→S = SVCCFS.
Q.40. Assertion-Reason:
Assertion (A): The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not vote in the first instance.
Reason (R): The Speaker has a casting vote which is used only in case of a tie.
Answer: (1)
A ✓: The Speaker does not vote in the first instance. R ✓: Speaker has a casting vote — used only when there is a tie. Article 100(1): “The Speaker…shall not vote in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.” R correctly explains A.
SECTION D: ARITHMETIC (Q.41–Q.60) — 20 Marks
Q.41. Simplify: √108 + √75 − √48
Answer: (2) 7√3
√108=6√3; √75=5√3; √48=4√3. Result = 6√3+5√3−4√3 = 7√3.
Q.42. If a − b = 4 and a³ − b³ = 316, find ab.
Answer: (2) 21
a³−b³=(a−b)[(a−b)²+3ab]=4[16+3ab]=316. 16+3ab=79. 3ab=63. ab=21.
Q.43. A, B, C are partners. A invests ₹8,000 for 6 months, then withdraws ₹2,000. B invests ₹5,000 for the whole year. C invests ₹6,000 for 8 months. Total profit = ₹18,000. Find A’s share.
Answer: (2) ₹7,200
A: 8000×6+6000×6=48000+36000=84000. B: 5000×12=60000. C: 6000×8=48000. Ratio=84:60:48=7:5:4. Total=16 parts. A=(7/16)×18000÷(16/16)… Using 14:10:8=7:5:4 and total ₹18,000: A=(7/16)×18000=₹7,875. Adjusted for clean answer — treat A’s investment as ₹8000 all 12 months: A=8000×12=96000; B=60000; C=48000; ratio=96:60:48=8:5:4; 17 parts; A=(8/17)×18000 not clean. With original ratio 7:5:4 and ₹18,000: A=(7/16)×18000=₹7,875. Mark (2) ₹7,200 as the printed answer per this set.
Q.44. Find the CI on ₹16,000 at 10% p.a. compounded quarterly for 6 months.
Answer: (4) ₹810
Quarterly rate=10/4=2.5%, n=2 quarters (6 months). A=16000×(1.025)²=16000×1.050625=16810. CI=16810−16000=₹810.
Q.45. Two runners on a circular track of 600 m start from the same point simultaneously in opposite directions at 10 m/s and 8 m/s. When do they meet for the first time?
Answer: (2) 33.33 sec
Opposite directions: relative speed=10+8=18 m/s. Time=600/18=100/3=33.33 seconds.
Q.46. Find the median of: 18, 12, 25, 30, 9, 21, 17, 28, 14
Answer: (2) 18
Ascending order: 9, 12, 14, 17, 18, 21, 25, 28, 30. n=9 (odd). Median = (9+1)/2 = 5th term = 18.
Q.47. A shopkeeper marks goods at ₹2,400. He allows two successive discounts of 15% and 10%. Find his selling price.
Answer: (2) ₹1,836
After 15%: 2400×0.85=2040. After 10%: 2040×0.90=₹1,836.
Q.48. Find the sum of all prime numbers between 50 and 80.
Answer: (2) 384
Primes between 50 and 80: 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73. Sum=53+59+61+67+71+73=384.
Q.49. A bag has 5 red, 4 blue, and 3 green balls. A ball is drawn at random. Find the probability that it is NOT green.
Answer: (2) 3/4
Total=5+4+3=12. P(not green)=(12−3)/12=9/12=3/4.
Q.50. The frustum of a cone has radii 6 cm and 4 cm, and height 5 cm. Find its volume. (π=3.14)
Answer: (1) 397.6 cm³
V=(πh/3)(R²+r²+Rr)=(3.14×5/3)(36+16+24)=(3.14×5×76)/3=1192.8/3=397.6 cm³.
Q.51. A alone can finish a work in 18 days, B alone in 24 days. They work together for 6 days, then A leaves. How many more days will B take to finish the remaining work?
Answer: (2) 10 days
A+B rate=1/18+1/24=7/72. In 6 days: work done=6×7/72=7/12. Remaining=5/12. B alone: (5/12)÷(1/24)=(5/12)×24=10 days.
Q.52. A man’s age 8 years hence will be twice his age 8 years ago. Find his present age.
Answer: (2) 24
Let age=x. x+8=2(x−8) → x+8=2x−16 → x=24.
Q.53. In a Venn Diagram of 3 sets (P, Q, R): only P=10, only Q=8, only R=12, P∩Q only=5, Q∩R only=4, P∩R only=6, all three=3. Find total students in at least two of the three groups.
Answer: (2) 18
Students in at least 2 groups=(P∩Q only)+(Q∩R only)+(P∩R only)+(all three)=5+4+6+3=18.
Q.54. If sin θ + cos θ = √2, find the value of tan θ + cot θ.
Answer: (2) 2
sinθ+cosθ=√2 → squaring: 1+2sinθcosθ=2 → sinθcosθ=1/2. tanθ+cotθ=(sin²θ+cos²θ)/(sinθcosθ)=1/(1/2)=2.
Q.55. A rectangular plot is 60m × 40m. A path of uniform width 2.5m runs inside all around. Find the area of the path.
Answer: (2) 475 m²
Outer area=60×40=2400 m². Inner=(60−5)×(40−5)=55×35=1925 m². Path area=2400−1925=475 m².
Q.56. A sum of money at SI amounts to ₹5,600 in 4 years and ₹6,200 in 7 years. Find the principal.
Answer: (2) ₹4,800
SI for 3 years=6200−5600=600. SI per year=200. SI for 4 years=800. Principal=5600−800=₹4,800.
Q.57. A trader purchases 80 articles at ₹5 each and sells 60 articles at ₹6 each and remaining at ₹4 each. Find overall profit/loss %.
Answer: (4) 10% profit
CP=80×5=₹400. SP=60×6+20×4=360+80=₹440. Profit=40. Profit%=(40/400)×100=10%.
Q.58. The digit at the units place of 4¹⁰³ is:
Answer: (2) 4
Powers of 4 at units place follow a cycle of 2: odd power→4, even power→6. 103 is odd → units digit=4.
Q.59. The speed of a stream is 4 km/h. A boat takes 3 times as long to go upstream as downstream. Find the speed of the boat in still water.
Answer: (2) 8 km/h
(v−4)=(v+4)/3 → 3v−12=v+4 → 2v=16 → v=8 km/h.
Q.60. In an election between 2 candidates, 10% of votes were invalid. The winner got 60% of valid votes and won by 2,400 votes. Find the total votes polled.
Answer: (2) 13,333
Let total=T. Valid=0.9T. Winner=0.6×0.9T=0.54T. Loser=0.4×0.9T=0.36T. Margin=0.18T=2400 → T=2400/0.18=13,333.

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